Quite a slippery slope.Going by what you are saying you would be correct. But what you are saying to begin with is incorrect. Therefore your conclussions will be incorrect.
You are essentially stating that gang affiliation is not only based on race, but it somehow determines employment? How can this be when gang members are neither considered unemployed or employed (assuming they are not already working jobs)?Income is just part of the correlating determinant. Not all of it. If a race is more prone to gang life then it will affect the numbers of employed (or unemployed) people when compared to others.
So, 300 million * (.74) = around 220 million. 13% of 220 million > 47% of 40 million ((300 million * (.13)). Nice tryWhites make up around 74% of the population of the US. Yet only make up 13% of gangs. Hispanics make up around 13% of the total population of the US. Yet make up 47% gangs. Common sense should be enough to figure out the obvious here.