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Do you believe that the phrase "Under God" should be in the Pledge of Allegiance?

Do you believe that the phrase "Under God" should be in the Pledge of Allegiance?

  • Yes

    Votes: 68 54.4%
  • No

    Votes: 57 45.6%

  • Total voters
    125
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This will be corrected soon, I'm not worried.;)

Since the word "God" can mean a number of things, to a number of people, I don't find it religious in nature. I think if you made someone repeat the pledge, even though they didn't want to, this would be unconstitutional.
 
That's my hope too: that all this will be corrected and set back on an even keel in this next decade. That will happen if this and the next President are successful in appointing strict constructionists to the Supreme Court so that rogue activist judges won't be able to run roughshod over the freedoms that we have, and that includes those judges that sit on the High Court.
 
AlbqOwl said:
That's my hope too: that all this will be corrected and set back on an even keel in this next decade. That will happen if this and the next President are successful in appointing strict constructionists to the Supreme Court so that rogue activist judges won't be able to run roughshod over the freedoms that we have, and that includes those judges that sit on the High Court.

You do realize that any strict constructionist worth his salt would decide this case in favor of the families suing to remove "under god," right?
 
RightatNYU said:
You do realize that any strict constructionist worth his salt would decide this case in favor of the families suing to remove "under god," right?


Errr, one only has to read the last line of the constitution to dismiss you outright, and certainly leave you wanting.;)

Done in Convention by the Unanimous Consent of the States present the Seventeenth Day of September in the Year of our Lord one thousand seven hundred and Eighty seven and of the Independence of the United States of America the Twelfth In witness whereof We have hereunto subscribed our Names,

G°. Washington
:2wave:
 
Not to mention that God is mentioned in the Preamble of Constitutions of 49 of the 50 states and is mentioned specifically within the body of the Constitution of the other state as well.
 
RightatNYU said:
You do realize that any strict constructionist worth his salt would decide this case in favor of the families suing to remove "under god," right?

Not necessarily. A strict constructionist would possibly believe the FA does not forbid an establishment of religion, it merely forbids Congress to legislate on the subject, reserving it entirely to the states under the Tenth Amendment.

A strict constructionist would possibly believe that the first clause of the FA does not concern people or states, and their establishing a religion, but along with the 10th Amendment, secures the right of the states and the people to be free from the will of Congress respecting an establishment of religion.

A strict constructionist would possibly believe that if any and all government action concerning religion, violates the FA, then so would the courts meddling in an area reserved for the states and people.

A strict constructionist would possibly believe that the 14th Amendment tells state legislatures and officials not to make or enforce laws "which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States." It would therefore seem that they must not enforce, in fact they should argue against any federal interference which limits either the peoples, or states religious efforts.

A strict constructionist would possibly believe that to end the argument, Congress could always regulate the federal courts under Article III Section 2.
 
AlbqOwl said:
Not to mention that God is mentioned in the Preamble of Constitutions of 49 of the 50 states and is mentioned specifically within the body of the Constitution of the other state as well.

And also not to mention that at least five states which ratified the Constitution had state churches. Their state legislatures believed the FA would protect state churches from a federal church.
 
Deegan said:
Errr, one only has to read the last line of the constitution to dismiss you outright, and certainly leave you wanting.;)

Done in Convention by the Unanimous Consent of the States present the Seventeenth Day of September in the Year of our Lord one thousand seven hundred and Eighty seven and of the Independence of the United States of America the Twelfth In witness whereof We have hereunto subscribed our Names,

G°. Washington
:2wave:


The exact same argument was made a few posts back, except regarding the liberty bell. I'll substitute the two in my reply.

The fact that the Constitution has a religious reference (and an incredibly minor one) in the (non-binding, non-actuary) closing of it, does not necessarily mean that it is not proper for government to be endorsing of it in all cases. There are special exemptions for religion in the public arena that have been deemed constitutional by the courts.

A) In cases of conflict between Establishment and Free Exercise
B) Establishment and Exercises in legislative bodies
C) Non-Devotional use of the Bible in the Public Schools
D) Uniform tax exemptions incidentally available to religious institutions
E) Religious considerations in public welfare programs
F) Activities which, though religious in origin, have ceased to be religious in nature

The last one there is what the Constitution's closing would fall under. It is also the same precedent that the defendents in the "under God" case will be claiming exonerates them, but the circumstances point pretty clearly toward the pledge not falling under this clause.
 
C.J. said:
Not necessarily. A strict constructionist would possibly believe the FA does not forbid an establishment of religion, it merely forbids Congress to legislate on the subject, reserving it entirely to the states under the Tenth Amendment.

A strict constructionist would possibly believe that the first clause of the FA does not concern people or states, and their establishing a religion, but along with the 10th Amendment, secures the right of the states and the people to be free from the will of Congress respecting an establishment of religion.

A strict constructionist would possibly believe that if any and all government action concerning religion, violates the FA, then so would the courts meddling in an area reserved for the states and people.

A strict constructionist would possibly believe that the 14th Amendment tells state legislatures and officials not to make or enforce laws "which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States." It would therefore seem that they must not enforce, in fact they should argue against any federal interference which limits either the peoples, or states religious efforts.

A strict constructionist would possibly believe that to end the argument, Congress could always regulate the federal courts under Article III Section 2.


And a "strict constructionist" who believed even ONE of those things is so far outside the judicial mainstream that there would be no chance whatsoever of being confirmed. So I'm not really worried about that.
 
C.J. said:
And also not to mention that at least five states which ratified the Constitution had state churches. Their state legislatures believed the FA would protect state churches from a federal church.

So you think there should be state churches?
 
RightatNYU said:
So you think there should be state churches?

Of course not, but I do not believe religious issues should be up to the feds to decide.
 
RightatNYU said:
The exact same argument was made a few posts back, except regarding the liberty bell. I'll substitute the two in my reply.

The fact that the Constitution has a religious reference (and an incredibly minor one) in the (non-binding, non-actuary) closing of it, does not necessarily mean that it is not proper for government to be endorsing of it in all cases. There are special exemptions for religion in the public arena that have been deemed constitutional by the courts.

A) In cases of conflict between Establishment and Free Exercise
B) Establishment and Exercises in legislative bodies
C) Non-Devotional use of the Bible in the Public Schools
D) Uniform tax exemptions incidentally available to religious institutions
E) Religious considerations in public welfare programs
F) Activities which, though religious in origin, have ceased to be religious in nature

The last one there is what the Constitution's closing would fall under. It is also the same precedent that the defendents in the "under God" case will be claiming exonerates them, but the circumstances point pretty clearly toward the pledge not falling under this clause.


So what say you to the oath one takes on the stand, so help me God, should that be changed as well?

As I said, if a child, or anyone else is forced to repeat the oath, like at a trial for instance, this could be considered unconstitutional, or should it?:confused:
 
RightatNYU said:
And a "strict constructionist" who believed even ONE of those things is so far outside the judicial mainstream that there would be no chance whatsoever of being confirmed. So I'm not really worried about that.

And one who doesn't, isn't a "strict constructionist." For instance, certainly no judicial nominee would want restraints under Article III section 2, but it's right there in black and white, and very plainly written, so his lack of belief would be immaterial. Would Congress ever use this section? Not a good precedent to establish is it?
 
Deegan said:
So what say you to the oath one takes on the stand, so help me God, should that be changed as well?

As I said, if a child, or anyone else is forced to repeat the oath, like at a trial for instance, this could be considered unconstitutional, or should it?:confused:

"It is true that religion has been closely identified with our history and government. As we said in Engel v. Vitale, "The history of man is inseparable from the history of religion. And . . . since the beginning of that history many people have devoutly believed that `More things are wrought by prayer than this world dreams of.'" In Zorach v. Clauson, we gave specific recognition to the proposition that "[w]e are a religious people whose institutions presuppose a Supreme Being." The fact that the Founding Fathers believed devotedly that there was a God and that the unalienable rights of man were rooted in Him is clearly evidenced in their writings, from the Mayflower Compact to the Constitution itself. This background is evidenced today in our public life through the continuance in our oaths of office from the Presidency to the Alderman of the final supplication, "So help me God." Likewise each House of the Congress provides through its Chaplain an opening prayer, and the sessions of this Court are declared open by the crier in a short ceremony, the final phrase of which invokes the grace of God...

...This is not to say, however, that religion has been so identified with our history and government that religious freedom is not likewise as strongly imbedded in our public and private life...

...Almost a hundred years ago in Minor v. Board of Education of Cincinnati, 7 Judge Alphonso Taft, father of the revered Chief Justice, in an unpublished opinion stated the ideal of our people as to religious freedom as one of:

"absolute equality before the law, of all religious opinions and sects...The government is neutral, and, while protecting all, it prefers none, and it disparages none."

Before examining this "neutral" position in which the Establishment and Free Exercise Clauses of the First Amendment place our Government it is well that we discuss the reach of the Amendment under the cases of this Court.

First, this Court has decisively settled that the First Amendment's mandate that "Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof" has been made wholly applicable to the States by the Fourteenth Amendment.

Second, this Court has rejected unequivocally the contention that the Establishment Clause forbids only governmental preference of one religion over another. Almost 20 years ago in Everson, supra, at 15, the Court said that "[n]either a state nor the Federal Government can set up a church. Neither can pass laws which aid one religion, aid all religions, or prefer one religion over another." And Mr. Justice Jackson, dissenting, agreed:

'There is no answer to the proposition . . . that the effect of the religious freedom Amendment to our Constitution was to take every form of propagation of religion out of the realm of things which could directly or indirectly be made public business and thereby be supported in whole or in part at taxpayers' expense. . . . This freedom was first in the Bill of Rights because it was first in the forefathers' minds; it was set forth in absolute terms, and its strength is its rigidity."

The conclusion follows that in both cases the laws require religious exercises and such exercises are being conducted in direct violation of the rights of the appellees and petitioners. Nor are these required exercises mitigated by the fact that individual students may absent themselves upon parental request, for that fact furnishes no defense to a claim of unconstitutionality under the Establishment Clause. Further, it is no defense to urge that the religious practices here may be relatively minor encroachments on the First Amendment. The breach of neutrality that is today a trickling stream may all too soon become a raging torrent and, in the words of Madison, "it is proper to take alarm at the first experiment on our liberties."

Abington School District v. Schempp

That pretty much makes my argument for me.
 
C.J. said:
Of course not, but I do not believe religious issues should be up to the feds to decide.

Shouldnt be (correction, isn't) up to the states or local school boards to decide either.
 
C.J. said:
And one who doesn't, isn't a "strict constructionist." For instance, certainly no judicial nominee would want restraints under Article III section 2, but it's right there in black and white, and very plainly written, so his lack of belief would be immaterial. Would Congress ever use this section? Not a good precedent to establish is it?

What restraints are you referring to? Art. III Sec II is pretty comprehensive.
 
So it's o.k to use the words in a situation where one must speak them, but not in a situation when one has every right not to speak them?:confused:

It would seem to me, and many others, that the wrong practice is under attack here.
 
RightatNYU said:
What restraints are you referring to? Art. III Sec II is pretty comprehensive.

In all Cases affecting Ambassadors, other public Ministers and Consuls, and those in which a State shall be Party, the supreme Court shall have original Jurisdiction. In all the other Cases before mentioned, the supreme Court shall have appellate Jurisdiction, both as to Law and Fact, with such Exceptions, and under such Regulations as the Congress shall make.
 
RightatNYU said:
Shouldnt be (correction, isn't) up to the states or local school boards to decide either.

I totally agree, but they are not constitutionally prohibited, only Congress is prohibited by the FA from making laws respecting an establishment of religion, not states or local schol boards.
 
C.J. said:
I totally agree, but they are not constitutionally prohibited, only Congress is prohibited by the FA from making laws respecting an establishment of religion, not states or local schol boards.

That's wrong.

The 14th amendment made all provisions of the bill of rights applicable to the state and local governments, down to the lowest dog catcher.

This is commonly held principle under the equal protection clause, and has been precedent for decades.
 
Deegan said:
So it's o.k to use the words in a situation where one must speak them, but not in a situation when one has every right not to speak them?:confused:

It would seem to me, and many others, that the wrong practice is under attack here.

In the end, it's the interpretation of the 9 black robed figures that matters. And while you might not be able to see the difference between announcing something in a legal setting and mandating the recitation into public classrooms every day, they do.
 
C.J. said:
In all Cases affecting Ambassadors, other public Ministers and Consuls, and those in which a State shall be Party, the supreme Court shall have original Jurisdiction. In all the other Cases before mentioned, the supreme Court shall have appellate Jurisdiction, both as to Law and Fact, with such Exceptions, and under such Regulations as the Congress shall make.

Well, if Congress wanted to pass a law saying that certain cases could not be appealed to the Supreme Court, but only to each individual states appellate courts, they'd be well within their rights to do so. I don't see the argument here.
 
RightatNYU said:
In the end, it's the interpretation of the 9 black robed figures that matters. And while you might not be able to see the difference between announcing something in a legal setting and mandating the recitation into public classrooms every day, they do.


Again, one is forced to place ones hand on the bible, and fear God's wrath, "so help you God"

Another is a tradition is our schools, and one NO ONE is forced to recite, which is the more pressing issue in your mind?:confused:

"They do"? I think that is yet to be detirmined.:confused:
 
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Deegan said:
Again, one is forced to place ones hand on the bible, and fear God's wrath, "so help you God"

Another is a tradition is our schools, and one NO ONE is forced to recite, which is the more pressing issue in your mind?:confused:

"They do"? I think that is yet to be detirmined.:confused:


In a courtroom, someone is called in individually for a legal reason, in the day to day workings of the government. It is not a process by which every single person who enters a courthouse must, each day, be sworn in.

You're right, the pledge is a tradition, WITHOUT under god. That was added in as an attempt to "stem the flow to godless communism." It's unnecessary and frankly, is nothing but trouble.

And yes, they do. In numerous incredibly similar cases, they have already decided in the same way. This should be no different.
 
RightatNYU said:
Well, if Congress wanted to pass a law saying that certain cases could not be appealed to the Supreme Court, but only to each individual states appellate courts, they'd be well within their rights to do so. I don't see the argument here.

Actually they would be misusing their powers to even mention the states appellate courts. If they limited the cases SCOTUS could hear, the final word would be in each of the 12 circuit courts of appeals. Theoretically there could be 12 different answers to the same question.

The rest of the argument is this. SCOTUS is constitutionally created, but lesser federal courts are created by Congress. They are a creature of Congress and can be handed the same restrictions as SCOTUS.
 
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