The patient is asking for the help of the doctor to end his/her life.
That doesn't answer the question. The physician is clearly using force, and a lethal amount of force at that; the patient is alive, then the doctor does something, and this something directly causes the patient to die.
Who is the first one in this scenario to employ force?
And this poll was about whether or not doctor assisted suicide should be legal/lawful in the United States
So don't assert "legal" like it's already the case. 3 states allow the prescription of fatal medication that you self-administer. The doctor killing you is legal in exactly zero states.
He does not ask the doctor to violate his rights
Yes he does. By requesting someone else to kill you in aggression, you are asking them to violate your right to life, a right you cannot abdicate. In the United States, this will result in criminal charges for the other person should they take your request, and that is entirely appropriate.
And you can keep throwing the word "force" around but that word has nothing to do with euthanasia at all.
Sure, PK. No action occurs whatsoever. You just walk up, administer medication, the person dies, and you didn't do anything. Sure, that's not force - I mean, it is by the definition of the word, but not in your book, apparently. So let's go with your "definition."
If I were to walk up to some random person and administer that medication to them, and they died, you'd probably want that to be illegal, probably charges of murder. But you'd have no basis for that law, because as you just claimed, there was no force involved, I only gave them medication. If I didn't initiate force against that person, and by your standard, I didn't, then I did nothing wrong.
And if it is legal, it would not be homicide in aggression at all.
Incorrect. By the definition of those words, it is always homicide and it is always in aggression. That is why it should be illegal.