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This should provide an interesting discussion.
The question is this: can you estimate the time period where the united state stopped following the founding fathers exact vision of how the government should operate, as detailed in the federalist papers, U.S constitution, and other founding documents?
The time periods under scrutiny are as follows:
1. 1790-1860s. The first time frame covers the administrations of the founding fathers and goes up to the start of the civil war. This time frame assumes that the founding fathers did not adhere to a static interpration of the constitution and found it necessary to fill in the blanks with regards to practical governance.
2.the second time frame starts in 1860 and concludes around 1900.
3. Time frame three is set around 1900 and lasts until 1932.
4. The fourth choice of time frame is from 1932 to 1945.
If these options seem limited, make your own theory as a fifth option.
So do you, but we don't point it out every time you post.anonymous polls suck
I don't see anything that indicated that mandated we avoid becoming a federal nation?
Also, why is hamilton's viewpoint considered repugnant? I thought that hamilton was just as big an influence in the development of this country as Maddison and Jefferson?
So you're in favor of taxes then? Hand in your conservative credentials immediately.
Hamilton and his wing of Federalists were instrumental in the development of the nation. Small government types just attempt to convince themselves otherwise. I'm glad my ancestor (2nd Sec of Treasury) stuck with the Bank and Hamilton.
This power does not extend to the point of violating other provisions in the Constitution. Our government does not, for example, have the authority to deprive us of our rights to freedom of speech, freedom of religion, the right to keep and bear arms, and so on.
At the federal level, our government does not have the authority to claim any powers that the Constitution does not explicitly delegate thereto.
It is not rational to suppose that the authors of the Constitution intended to allow the possibility that our government might use a treaty with a foreign nation as a way to circumvent the limitations and protections that the Constitution is clearly intended to assert. Our government, cannot, for example, enter into a treaty with Iran that requires all citizens of the U.S. to convert to Islam.
Our government does not have the authority to cede to any foreign interest, any power over us, that our government does not, itself have the legitimate authority to exercise over us; and nothing in the portion of the Constitution which you cites—nor anywhere else in the Constitution—can rationally be construed as claiming otherwise.
And this has to do with liberty and self-governance for anyone besides wealthy landed white men being completely different from the founders' ideas... how? I get the knee-jerk reaction to any criticism of the United States' history, but it's not even on topic.
The beauty of it was the trick involved. They made it necessary to "get a license," but refused to sell said licenses. So they essentially banned it through the backdoor.
Hamilton and his wing of Federalists were instrumental in the development of the nation. Small government types just attempt to convince themselves otherwise. I'm glad my ancestor (2nd Sec of Treasury) stuck with the Bank and Hamilton.
This should provide an interesting discussion.
The question is this: can you estimate the time period where the united state stopped following the founding fathers exact vision of how the government should operate, as detailed in the federalist papers, U.S constitution, and other founding documents?
The time periods under scrutiny are as follows:
1. 1790-1860s. The first time frame covers the administrations of the founding fathers and goes up to the start of the civil war. This time frame assumes that the founding fathers did not adhere to a static interpration of the constitution and found it necessary to fill in the blanks with regards to practical governance.
2.the second time frame starts in 1860 and concludes around 1900.
3. Time frame three is set around 1900 and lasts until 1932.
4. The fourth choice of time frame is from 1932 to 1945.
If these options seem limited, make your own theory as a fifth option.
since we have to go on a time frame...with the most damage done....1880 - 1945
destruction of Republican form of government,
That is correct which is why I said as much in post #45 including referencing, Reid v Covert, the relevant SCOTUS case.
once again the constitution gives the federal govt the power to make treaties that become the supreme law of the land
Once again correct and I have already said as much once again I point you to Reid v Covert
However there is nothing in the constitution which creates a right to do drugs so a treaty can ban those and note that the treaty doesnt [sic] even override the 10th amendment as local entities are allowed to legalize drugs.
No one is ceding authority to your mythical "foreign interest" we freely agree to treaties and we can pull our support from them at any time
The Constitution remains the most supreme law of the land, and nothing can override it.
Stop right there. We have a republican form of government.
thats debatable, since the senate is no longer in the hands of the states......america is no longer a republic based on that the founders created ..the roman republic.
states are no longer republican which have referendums and initiatives....because that is democratic government...direct democracy.
It's still a republic, but the amount of republican orientation has decreased the increased democracy of the past century.