Why would we assume that just because an older male molests a younger male that they are homosexual?
What percentage of male pedophiles who molest boys identify as heterosexual and engage in sexual relationships with women?
What about men who molest both boys and girls? Would you include their numbers with men who molest just boys? Would those men be considered bisexual? What if they have no attraction to adults or are primarily attracted to women?
And what about a man who only sleeps with other men but also molests young girls? Is he to be considered heterosexual?
Before we can speculate on whether gay men are more likely to molest children, we need to determine whether men who molest boys are actually gay.