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I never stated there was any conclusive evidence either way. There usually isn't in these situations. No, in my link, it is specifically stated that Allen was seeing a psychiatrist for inappropriate behavior with Dylan before the revelation of his affair with the other child.
If there's no conclusive evidence either way, how come you are so adamant that he's a paedophile? The only possible incident that he has been accused of that even suggests an interest in pre-pubescent girls is the Dylan incident - the very one you have admitted there's no overwhelming proof happened. What's your overwhelming evidence of his paedophile nature?