Yes, but only during the first 20 weeks, same as a woman.
Yes, but only during the initial period when a non-invasive technique works.
No, but he should have the right to be legally relieved of all responsibility.
NO! Only the woman has this right and he remains responsible.
I oppose all abortion, so neither have the right.
I Don't Know.
Pregnancy is a potential result of a man and woman having sex. Even when using protection. Any man capable of fathering a child knows this. Other than in cases where either partner is incapable of reproducing, having sex is always consenting to having a child since in those cases, it's always a potential risk. At most, you can contend it was not your intention of have a child, but it's absurd to claim you don't consent to having a child. It's explicit when a man who can produce a child has sex with a woman who can produce a child.
Try going to court and explaining to the judge you shouldn't have to support your own child because you didn't consent to the having the child, but the condom tore! See how far that gets ya.
Consent to sex is consent to have a child. Therefor a man's choice is made when he has sex and all is fair and equal.No it isn't.
That sperm is legaly a gift the woman may do with as she pleases, or that child sipport is a right of the child parents cannot sign away?So again, please provide a SCOTUS ruling saying it is.
Saying he has the right to make his own independent decisions is not "blackmail." No one is trying to stop her from making whatever decision she wants. If she is determined to have the kid, she still can.
Other people having rights to themselves is not "blackmail." To say so is to deny personal responsibility, and to say that it is ok to actually blackmail men.