Repeating the dumbest post I ever read on this forum does not make it any wiser. And I didn't take your words out of context. I quoted your post and addressed it.
I'll address it again since you didn't understand the first time.
Excluding cases were either the man or the woman is incapable of producing a child, pregnancy is always a risk of sex. That makes having a child consensual even if unintended.
I get what Excon is saying. I get what you're saying. However, the language by Excon is...well, not technically correct...and your post not isn't "technically correct.
Men and women who have sex can agree that a sexual event is intended for pleasure only...and not for conception. But when the "unintended" happens there is an order of events.
First...fertilization...then a zygote, then a blastocyst, then an embryo, then a non-viable fetus, then a variably developed fetus...then fully mature fetus ready to give birth to.
Consequently...
Ex's comment should have been..."consent to sex isn't consent to conception".
Your claim "Excluding cases were either the man or the woman is incapable of producing a child, pregnancy is always a risk of sex"....should therefore read..."That makes conception consensual even if unintended."
My point is:
At the very most...having sex would only make conception consensual...not "having children". And I'm not implying that I agree with that. I'm only trying to bring out the technical point.
Ultimately...current laws are....
A woman, can at will, without the consent of a man, have an abortion, of course complying with the boundaries of Roe v. Wade's viability provision. There is no standing legal recourse for a man that would
automatically render her "choice" impotent.
My question to you is: I see your "exclusions" but, how does your "that makes conception consensual even if unintended" more true than Excon's version?
The fact is, and nothing new to you, is that sex is performed many, many more times for pleasure than procreation.
Because of the fact the fact sex is performed many, many more times for pleasure...then I believe that
unless a man and woman have declared that they are purposely trying to achieve having a pregnancy, that sex is always regarded as an act of pleasure.
Not the other way around.
Therefore the more intended consequence of having sex is to have an orgasm...or two...etc.
And that an unintended pregnancy...is not consensual (or by agreement), but rather an unwanted consequence.
How that unwanted or unintended consequence is managed - at present day - and allowable by law - the woman can decide the fate of that conception...all by herself...within the boundaries of the law.