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Do dictators commit murder against their own citizens?

Do dictators commit murder against their own citizens?


  • Total voters
    16
Mac and Cephus take the literal definition of murder to the extreme, arguing that dictators do not murder unless (as mac pointed out) convicted in an international court of justice.

What is your take? Should we be blinded by literalism and refrain from calling these men murderers, or is it necessary to denounce them as murderers for unjustly taking the lives of their own citizens?

If murder is the illegal or unlawful killing of another; then a dictator cannot murder as it is not illegal nor unlawful for him to do as he likes in his country of sovereignty.
 
I read some articles about world top dictators and I feel that they do murdered their citizens, in one article it was written that one of the dictators use to punish people by put them in boiling water, isn't that less than a murder.
 
Do guests vote on these polls? Is that why it's showing 11 votes for No but only two members who made the vote?
 
I don't believe in defining murder strictly by law. Some nation may allow for honor killings and legally not call it murder, but it is still murder morally in my book.

Yes, dictators do murder their own citizens, and it doesn't matter what some international criminal court says.
 
Bleh international law shouldn't even come into this.
International law, is hardly enforced making it, largely, null.

It's still the law, though. It may be selectively and poorly enforced in most cases, but there are rules that governments are at least expected to follow.
 
Don't you have to sign a treaty for international law to apply? Why would a dictator sign something that doesn't benefit him?

Universal Declaration of Human Rights - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

The Universal Declaration was adopted by the General Assembly on 10 December 1948 by a vote of 48 in favour, 0 against, with eight abstentions: the USSR, Ukrainian SSR, Byelorussian SSR, Yugoslavia, Poland, South Africa, Czechoslovakia and Saudi Arabia.[10][11]

No. That's not how international law works.
 
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