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Death Penalty

Should there be a death penalty?

  • Yes

    Votes: 55 47.0%
  • No

    Votes: 45 38.5%
  • Under certain circumstances, please explain

    Votes: 17 14.5%

  • Total voters
    117
Which were deemed inconsistent with international law, and more importantly, considered war crimes.

You're applying retrospective analysis to make that determination. You're adhering to certain international standards and codes in some areas but ignoring them in others. Your logic is inconsistent and flawed.

Whether or not genocide was recognized or not doesn't change the status of Nazi actions as war crimes.

I thought we were going by literal definitions of terms? There is no exception in the literal definition of a murder. It has to be illegal at the time it is committed. There is no retrospective exception to the rule.

No it isn't. It's murder, and there is law against it. International law prohibits the death penalty without conviction in a court.

Name the law. And I wasn't even talking about the death penalty. The Stalinists STARVED people to death by taking away their daily bread and giving it to the citizens of the motherland. I'm not referring to official death sentences.
 
Where did you get this? Please, not again!

You miss a lot of information if you jump into the middle of a debate.

Mac said murder is an illegal killing. Under the Nazis, killing Jews was not illegal. Ergo, according to mac (who conveniently uses international protocols when it suits his argument), the Nazis committed no murders. Only killings.
 
You're applying retrospective analysis to make that determination. You're adhering to certain international standards and codes in some areas but ignoring them in others. Your logic is inconsistent and flawed.

No, I'm not. There is nothing retrospective about the Nuremberg trials.

I thought we were going by literal definitions of terms? There is no exception in the literal definition of a murder. It has to be illegal at the time it is committed. There is no retrospective exception to the rule.

Negligent homicide is a term....and it is murder. Homicide can also mean (and usually does mean) murder. As far as weather or not it was illegal, international law states there must be a conviction for it to be legal. Did the Stalinists convict, in court, everyone they killed?

Name the law. And I wasn't even talking about the death penalty. The Stalinists STARVED people to death by taking away their daily bread and giving it to the citizens of the motherland. I'm not referring to official death sentences.

International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights
 
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this thread, is not about abortion. we have more than enough abortion threads.

And more than enough references to the death penalty in them.
 
You miss a lot of information if you jump into the middle of a debate.

Mac said murder is an illegal killing. Under the Nazis, killing Jews was not illegal. Ergo, according to mac (who conveniently uses international protocols when it suits his argument), the Nazis committed no murders. Only killings.

You're back tracking...I thought you came to terms with the Nazi thing. Of course it was illegal. You seem to have confused yourself on what I've said. I certainly did not say that the Nazi's committed no murders.
 
No, I'm not. There is nothing retrospective about the Nuremberg trials.

Then you need to do a little more reading on the Nuremberg trials. The allies essentially tried the Nazis for international crimes that had yet to exist (genocide/war crimes)



Negligent homicide is a term....and it is murder. Homicide can also mean (and usually does mean) murder.

You're conflating several different issues. First of all, in this paragraph, I was referring to the Nazi crimes. Second, there was nothing negligent about either the Nazi killings or the Stalinist killings. Both were premeditated.

As far as weather or not it was illegal, international law states there must be a conviction for it to be legal. Did the Stalinists convict, in court, everyone they killed?

Holodomor - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

Again, this occurred before the standards against genocide were implemented. The Soviet Union was also not subject to any judicial enforcement or punishment as a result of the genocide, thereby undermining the definition of said law.


That is not a law according to the literal definition, and not all countries have ratified (like the US) or even signed the treaty. I suppose that means those who do not ratify and/or sign are not in violation of said treaty? And therefore, they are not guilty of state-sanctioned murder.


law
1    [law] Show IPA

noun
1.
the principles and regulations established in a community by some authority and applicable to its people, whether in the form of legislation or of custom and policies recognized and enforced by judicial decision.
2.
any written or positive rule or collection of rules prescribed under the authority of the state or nation, as by the people in its constitution. Compare bylaw, statute law.
 
You're back tracking...I thought you came to terms with the Nazi thing. Of course it was illegal. You seem to have confused yourself on what I've said. I certainly did not say that the Nazi's committed no murders.

You go by the literal definition of terms when it suits your argument, and then ignore literalism when it doesn't suit your argument. You adhere to international standards and protocols when it suits your argument, and then ignore them when it doesn't suit your argument. Your logic is inconsistent.
 
Then you need to do a little more reading on the Nuremberg trials. The allies essentially tried the Nazis for international crimes that had yet to exist (genocide/war crimes)

That's not what I mean. The trials happened, the Nazi's were deemed guilty of war crimes. That's a fact, that's what happened. What they did to do that is a different matter.

You're conflating several different issues. First of all, in this paragraph, I was referring to the Nazi crimes. Second, there was nothing negligent about either the Nazi killings or the Stalinist killings. Both were premeditated.

You are conflating, I'm afraid, not I. You are making the connection between the issues, I am not. I did not say the Nazi's were guilty of negligent homicide. I said the Stalinists were.

Holodomor - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

Again, this occurred before the standards against genocide were implemented. The Soviet Union was also not subject to any judicial enforcement or punishment as a result of the genocide, thereby undermining the definition of said law.

Then take it up with the Nuremberg judges if you feel what happened to the Nazi's was unjust.

That is not a law according to the literal definition, and not all countries have ratified (like the US) or even signed the treaty. I suppose that means those who do not ratify and/or sign are not in violation of said treaty? And therefore, they are not guilty of state-sanctioned murder.


law
1    [law] Show IPA

noun
1.
the principles and regulations established in a community by some authority and applicable to its people, whether in the form of legislation or of custom and policies recognized and enforced by judicial decision.
2.
any written or positive rule or collection of rules prescribed under the authority of the state or nation, as by the people in its constitution. Compare bylaw, statute law.

It is a treaty, which we signed, it is law.
 
You go by the literal definition of terms when it suits your argument, and then ignore literalism when it doesn't suit your argument. You adhere to international standards and protocols when it suits your argument, and then ignore them when it doesn't suit your argument. Your logic is inconsistent.

Far from it. I said all along that the Nazi's were guilty of war crimes and murder. It's you that has been trying, and failing, to use the Nazi's to somehow justify your incorrect use of the word murder.

The simple fact of the matter is that murder is an illegal killing and the death penalty is not made illegal by either US or international law, regardless of what happened in WWII or for any other reason. You can throw up as much smoke as you like, but you'd do better talking about how the death penalty is wrong instead of making false claims about it's legality or by falsely calling it murder.
 
Far from it. I said all along that the Nazi's were guilty of war crimes and murder. It's you that has been trying, and failing, to use the Nazi's to somehow justify your incorrect use of the word murder.

The simple fact of the matter is that murder is an illegal killing and the death penalty is not made illegal by either US or international law, regardless of what happened in WWII or for any other reason. You can throw up as much smoke as you like, but you'd do better talking about how the death penalty is wrong instead of making false claims about it's legality or by falsely calling it murder.

hmmmm.... I have stayed out of this Nazi conversation because my WWII knowledge is limited, but... I do not like ot when people use the term "war crimes" or the fact that the notion exists. It seems that it is war, people are killing people, destroying infrastructure etc... but there are "rules" to it? Having "rules" makes it a game to me and war should not be like a game. Either do it or don't. I know this may sound callous but it is what I think.

When governments go after their own citizens like in Syria, it is not war but they are being accused of war crimes, what they are doing is tyranny, not "civil" war, which is an oxymoron and not war crimes.
 
That's not what I mean. The trials happened, the Nazi's were deemed guilty of war crimes. That's a fact, that's what happened. What they did to do that is a different matter.

This doesn't change the fact that the punishment was served retroactively for a crime that, at that time, was not illegal.

You are conflating, I'm afraid, not I. You are making the connection between the issues, I am not. I did not say the Nazi's were guilty of negligent homicide. I said the Stalinists were.

That would mean Joseph Stalin and his followers did not mean to starve the several million Ukrainians who were robbed of their livelihood.

Then take it up with the Nuremberg judges if you feel what happened to the Nazi's was unjust.

That is bull****. You know damn well I'm playing devil's advocate in order to demonstrate the weakness of your argument. I DO consider the Nazi killings murder, despite the fact that it was supposedly legal at the time. I also consider the Soviet killings murder, despite the fact that it was supposedly legal at the time and no judgement or punishment was ever rendered for that crime in a judicial setting (which is key to the definition of law).

It is a treaty, which we signed, it is law.

We signed, but we did not ratify. What does that mean? Saudi Arabia did not sign nor did they ratify the treaty. So, I guess that means when the Saudi government beheads adulterers and homosexuals, it is not murder (according to your logic).

In every one of these convenants that we did sign, we also made reservations. Can you tell me, by what logic, am I allowed to make reservations regarding laws in this country? If it is unfathomable to hold reservations in regard to homicide laws, why would it be fathomable to hold them in regard to international laws?

And finally, according to the literal definition (which you again ignored), the said treaty is not, in fact, a law.
 
Far from it. I said all along that the Nazi's were guilty of war crimes and murder. It's you that has been trying, and failing, to use the Nazi's to somehow justify your incorrect use of the word murder.

Wrong. I'm playing devil's advocate in order to prove your argument false. The Nazis did murder, but so did the Stalinists. Your logic would imply otherwise. Or, at the very least, would imply that the Saudi Arabian government NEVER murdered its citizens.

The simple fact of the matter is that murder is an illegal killing and the death penalty is not made illegal by either US or international law,

If it is not made illegal by any law anywhere, then the death penalty can be used to kill innocent people. PERIOD. The legal framework under which a killing is carried out does not solely dictate when a murder takes place.
 
hmmmm.... I have stayed out of this Nazi conversation because my WWII knowledge is limited, but... I do not like ot when people use the term "war crimes" or the fact that the notion exists. It seems that it is war, people are killing people, destroying infrastructure etc... but there are "rules" to it? Having "rules" makes it a game to me and war should not be like a game. Either do it or don't. I know this may sound callous but it is what I think.

Yes, there are rules...under international law.

When governments go after their own citizens like in Syria, it is not war but they are being accused of war crimes, what they are doing is tyranny, not "civil" war, which is an oxymoron and not war crimes.

Syria is practically in a Civil war. The government can commit war crimes during a civil war.
 
Wrong. I'm playing devil's advocate in order to prove your argument false. The Nazis did murder, but so did the Stalinists. Your logic would imply otherwise. Or, at the very least, would imply that the Saudi Arabian government NEVER murdered its citizens.

No, logic does not prove otherwise. They were both instances of murder. It's just the method that differed.

If it is not made illegal by any law anywhere, then the death penalty can be used to kill innocent people. PERIOD. The legal framework under which a killing is carried out does not solely dictate when a murder takes place.

By law, the death penalty can only be applied after conviction in a court. That implies guilt. Neither US nor international law supports your claim that the innocent can be legally put to death.
 
Yes, there are rules...under international law.



Syria is practically in a Civil war. The government can commit war crimes during a civil war.

Correct. What I am saying is that the terminology of a "civil" war is ridiculous. War is not civil. As for war "crimes" I feel there should be no "rules" in war. There should be no war, but that obviously is not a possibility. If there is war, why are there rules? If you are going to kill or maim or abuse people the doesn't that make it criminal in the first place?
 
This doesn't change the fact that the punishment was served retroactively for a crime that, at that time, was not illegal.

Regardless, they were found guilty of murder. :shrug:

That would mean Joseph Stalin and his followers did not mean to starve the several million Ukrainians who were robbed of their livelihood.

One does not have to intend to be negligent.

That is bull****. You know damn well I'm playing devil's advocate in order to demonstrate the weakness of your argument. I DO consider the Nazi killings murder, despite the fact that it was supposedly legal at the time. I also consider the Soviet killings murder, despite the fact that it was supposedly legal at the time and no judgement or punishment was ever rendered for that crime in a judicial setting (which is key to the definition of law).

The war crimes that were committed did not need to be classified as genocide in order to be crimes. Gassing to death un-armed non-combatant civilians without trial is a war crime regardless of race. I'm afraid it's not bull****.

We signed, but we did not ratify. What does that mean? Saudi Arabia did not sign nor did they ratify the treaty. So, I guess that means when the Saudi government beheads adulterers and homosexuals, it is not murder (according to your logic).

Not in accordance with their laws. I believe that can and should be argued in an international court though.

In every one of these convenants that we did sign, we also made reservations. Can you tell me, by what logic, am I allowed to make reservations regarding laws in this country? If it is unfathomable to hold reservations in regard to homicide laws, why would it be fathomable to hold them in regard to international laws?

We are bound by what we agreed to be bound by. Regardless of our reservations, we have agreed to follow international law. Which does not make the death penalty illegal, by the way.

And finally, according to the literal definition (which you again ignored), the said treaty is not, in fact, a law.

A treaty is a law once signed.

treaty legal definition of treaty. treaty synonyms by the Free Online Law Dictionary.
 
Correct. What I am saying is that the terminology of a "civil" war is ridiculous. War is not civil. As for war "crimes" I feel there should be no "rules" in war. There should be no war, but that obviously is not a possibility. If there is war, why are there rules? If you are going to kill or maim or abuse people the doesn't that make it criminal in the first place?

Do we really need to discuss what a civil war is?
 
Do we really need to discuss what a civil war is?

I was just putting in my two cents on literal meanings when it comes to war. I usually do not tell people my views on those two items as it makes me seem callous. I have a lot of pet peeves about word usage. Ex. "Personally, I believe" or For me, personally" the use of "personally" is unnecessary.

Now I'm way off topic.

With the death penalty, regardless of the law I think it is murder. It is a heinous act just as committing genocide is.
 
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