When did Freddie and Fannie force any financial instutition they did not want to? Why did Texas avoid the housing bubble when it is subject to the same federal regulations that Nevada (ie CRA, Fannie, Freddie among others), why did the UK and Ireland have housing bubbles depsite not being subject to the CRA or Fannie or Freddie, heck why did housing prices in Canada go up similarly in price (housing bubble that has not burst yet) despite not being subject to the CRA, Fannie and Freddie.
The point that should be obvious to anyone, the banks took on excess leverage and in the search for yield willingly provided loans to millions of people who should not have received them. They were able to make the loans, and sell them off as a means to unload the risk of the loan to someone else.
The govermnment played a part, it weakened regulations allowing for increased risk and leverage, it reduced the lending standards, and it did not regulate Fannie and Freddie properly. But as Texas should strick mortgage regulations by the government (in this case state regulations) can prevent the idiocy of banks to make loans they shouldnt, and stop people from making loans they shouldnt. Countrywide was never forced to make bad loans, it wanted to do so.