Re: How does God(s)'s existence give life meaning?
Adagio said:
Actually a lot of people picked up on this canonical argument. It's foundationalist. Wittgenstein was foundationalist. The great foundationalist programs of the past were attempts to justify our beliefs, where ‘justify’ meant showing them to be true, and ‘true’ meant corresponding to the facts.
Well...I'm not sure I would characterize things quite this way. There were multiple theories of truth, including (as you note) correspondence theories, current in the 20th century.
Also, and perhaps more to the point, the argument I briefly sketched need make no reference to foundationalist claims. The infinite regress problem is a problem which foundationalism was supposed to solve in the epistemic domain. But we're not talking about knowledge. We're talking about meaning and intension.
Adagio said:
The collapse of foundationalism in the twentieth century is due to our discovery that it is impossible to justify our beliefs in this way. This is the great philosophical fact of the twentieth century.
Well, what we seem to have discovered is that one cannot simultaneously hold foundationalist principles, insist on absolute certainty as enlightenment philosophy envisioned, and also believe that everything is open to question. There are still plenty of foundationalists working in epistemology, however. They usually just give up one of the other two beliefs (more usually, the insistence on Cartesian-type certainty).
It really doesn't seem correct to claim that foundationalism has collapsed. It has contemporary and near-contemporary proponents. Alvin Plantinga and Michael Wolterstorff come to mind, as do Jim Pryor and Michael Huemer. Indeed, anyone who is an internalist is probably a foundationalist to some extent. Some versions of externalism also have a foundationalist "flavor."
Adagio said:
Any attempt to justify our beliefs must lead either to psychologism, or to dogmatism, or to infinite regress. But neither psychologism nor dogmatism can demonstrate truth. Not only is it impossible to justify our beliefs, but attempts to do so may lead to authoritarianism of one form or another.
Taken as you've stated it, this would seem to lead to a very strict relativism. I don't think the critics of foundationalism have it in mind that literally
any attempt at justification (or warrant) ends up with the consequences you've named.
Adagio said:
Kant pointed to Euclidean Geometry and Newtonian Mechanics as examples of what he called a priori synthetic knowledge. And he tried to explain how a priori synthetic knowledge was possible by saying that the mind imposes its laws upon nature in order to understand it, and that all rational beings impose the same laws. And that's foundational and it was the epistomology before Einstein.
Despite this, there is considerable support (even among those who are fully aware of the impact relativity has had) for the view that Kant got the basic idea right. We do seem to require such categories as unity and plurality, or relation and negation (or something like them) to understand any given thing.
The fact that Kant thought such judgments were not about the
ding an sich, but only the phenomenal world, raises a question in my mind about whether what you've said here is an accurate assessment of Kant's contribution.
Adagio said:
Kant’s attempt to salvage the rationality of science collapsed when Einstein imposed a non-Euclidean geometry and a non-Newtonian physics upon nature.
Well...this is odd. Are you saying that Einstein did essentially what Kant did, just with a different set of concepts?
Adagio said:
Einstein described a natural world that rational beings before him had never conceived. And his descriptions were then corroborated by the results of the experiments that he conceived in order to test them. The success of Einstein’s theory shattered all hopes of explaining the rationality of science in terms of a priori foundations. If Kant could be wrong about the a priori certainty of Newtonian Mechanics and Euclidean Geometry, then how could anyone ever claim to be a priori certain again?
See remarks above.
Adagio said:
Canonical means Of, relating to, or required by canon law. Law by what authority? Appeals to authority are logically false.
I'm not sure what it means for a proposition to be "logically false"--I would take this to mean that the proposition is contradictory, but presumably you mean "fallacious." But this is not always the case. It's not fallacious, for instance, to consult a medical doctor about an illness and accept her advice. Nor is it fallacious to consult a Bishop about church doctrine. It's only fallacious when the domain of authority is taken to extend beyond its reasonable borders.
Anyway, this isn't the only meaning of "canon."