TC -
The Religions themselves are a different entity from the people who practice these religions. Religions are not fundamentally affected by cultural factors. The way that religions are actively practiced is affected by cultural factors.
One must look at religious texts in order to acertain if the religion itself is the causal factor for variance if one's argument is "The difference between the regions is religion" (Hint: look at the third sentence in OP in this thread to see why my comparison is 100% valid).
Hmm.. Still not seeing it Tucker. You keep referring to "cultural" as evidence of diversion from fundamental text. I find this somewhat dubious. Fundamentally, all of the three major religions follow one single precept, that is, that there is one God. From there, men wrote, interpreted, and practiced the text, which I would assume you agree is all a matter of culture, to the extent that, the way one follows God into heaven, is a matter of interpretation of the text written by men, who themselves were "cultured"; yet by itself is not a reason to claim what you did.
You are again confusing beliefs of the practitioners of a religion with the religion itself. Simply because modern Christians have cherry-picked which portions of their religious texts to adhere to is no reason to ignore the similarities between texts. My argument is about the factors that lead to the variance in practice.
There are similarities indeed, but there are similarities between recipes for pea soup, so what. The variances you claim are cultural are not necessarily so. There are differences of opinion as to the true book of God in all the major religions. These differences of opinion are based off historical interpretations and their significance, I would not call them cultural, I would label them contemporaneous. Culture denotes a vague staple in your argument.
In a fundamental way, the religions ARE the same. It's what happens afterward that makes the differences in the views held by modern practitioners. But fundamentally (as defined by their fundamental texts) they are identical when it comes to the subject of homosexuality.
It don't get any more "fundamental" than the religious texts
Well, again I'm no bible scholar, so you'll forgive me if I ask you for specific reference to where the 3 major religions all view homosexuality the same way, with specific emphasis on putting them all to death. I grant you that Judaism, and Christianity to my knowledge all agree that homosexuality is a scourge, but quite different to wanting the all dead. You mentioned a passage Leviticus earlier (Sorry to lazy to look) but isn't Leviticus located in the Old Testament?
Whether or not you think you are confsued has no real bearing on whether or not you actually are.
Not confused just being a stickler for the finer details of your argument. You claim a vague reference to culture being responsible for the differences in religions as time goes by. To some extent this is true, although you haven't defined exactly the what, where and how's, but my argument stems from the fact that you lump all the major religions together when referring to their fundamental beliefs. I don't see it that way..
Tim-