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Originally Posted by tecoyah Moderator Question:
If 50% of a given population of a hypothetical state, is of one religion, and the rest spread over a spectrum of differing faiths, Does the majority have the right to impose doctrine through legislation, regardless of the effects it may have on the Minorities? Please explain your reasoning. Galen Goes First |
I'd say no. It would depend on the hypothetical state though. Hypothetically we could have a situation where a bunch of people who believe very fervently that church and state cannot be seperate, and they moved off and formed their own nation, and then a bunch of followers of different faiths move there, it wouldn't really be fair to ask them to change the concept the nation is based around.
But in an average state, no, it's wrong, from a religious and a political viewpoint. Religiously it's wrong because, at least in most major religions, it's not what you do that matters, but what you think and feel (and what you do is a byproduct of that). You simply cannot legislate what people can think (not morally speaking, but it's actually impossible), so what you would inevitably be doing is just legislating actions. This would pretty much mean that laws have been set up requiring people to feign religion, which is in many people's eyes (including my own) worse than not practicing at all.
And politically it's wrong because when it comes down to pure religion (that is, what you actually believe), it is a matter of choice, while if you are living in a country (which you inevitably must), then you are not given the choice to not follow their laws. Thus the standard for creating religious doctrine and the standard for creating legislation should be in their very nature different.