From this it seems that, in this case the issue was a poor interpretation of the 1st amendment rather than use of Sharia law as precedent."In this action pursuant to the Prevention of Domestic Violence Act (PDVA), we held that the Free Exercise Clause of the First Amendment does not require a Family Part judge to exempt defendant, a practicing Muslim, from a finding that he committed the predicate acts of sexual assault and criminal sexual contact and thus violated the PDVA.
We also found that the judge was mistaken in failing to enter a final restraining order in the matter."
What if the citation were to one of King Solomon's rulings? Is it okay for a judge to look to King Solomon and see if there was any wisdom in something that he did? If there were any merit in one of Solomon's judgments, can that same wisdom be used in an American court even though the wisdom comes from a foreign source? Or would that make one an unpatriotic "globalist"?
What about British common law? If there is any wisdom in that, is it acceptable to use that wisdom?
I think that the idea that is being railed against here is abhorrent. However, I do not think that the idea that we oppose is the same thing as what is actual in existence.