You tried that already.
My source: Facts About Homosexuality and Child Molestation
From your source:
Wow, with footnotes to prove it and everything. That is pretty damning...oh wait, there is a problem there, and it lies in the bolded part.In 1983, a probability survey of the sexual experiences of 4,340 adults in 5 U.S. cities found that about 3% of men and 7% of women reported sexual involvement with a man before the age of 134 (i.e., 30% was homosexual).
Now drawing from my source:
So, according to my source, calling male/male molestation "homosexual" is inaccurate. Now why would it say that...well, let's look further:Another problem related to terminology arises because sexual abuse of male children by adult men2 is often referred to as "homosexual molestation." The adjective "homosexual" (or "heterosexual" when a man abuses a female child) refers to the victim's gender in relation to that of the perpetrator. Unfortunately, people sometimes mistakenly interpret it as referring to the perpetrator's sexual orientation.
To avoid this confusion, it is preferable to refer to men's sexual abuse of boys with the more accurate label of male-male molestation. Similarly, it is preferable to refer to men's abuse of girls as male-female molestation. These labels are more accurate because they describe the sex of the individuals involved but don't implicitly convey unwarranted assumptions about the perpetrator's sexual orientation.
What all this is saying is that pedophiles(and hebophiles) are not gay. What the article does explain is that in a large number of child molesters, their primary sexual attraction is to children, not male or female. What this all means is that using the number of male/male incidence of child molesting as evidence gays are more likely to be child molesters is false. In other words, your whole source has fallen apart within 4 paragraphs.Using the fixated-regressed distinction, Groth and Birnbaum (1978) studied 175 adult males who were convicted in Massachusetts of sexual assault against a child. None of the men had an exclusively homosexual adult sexual orientation. 83 (47%) were classified as "fixated;" 70 others (40%) were classified as regressed adult heterosexuals; the remaining 22 (13%) were classified as regressed adult bisexuals. Of the last group, Groth and Birnbaum observed that "in their adult relationships they engaged in sex on occasion with men as well as with women. However, in no case did this attraction to men exceed their preference for women....There were no men who were primarily sexually attracted to other adult males..." (p.180).
Now tell me what logical fallacy this is.