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Boy Charged For Desecration Of Jesus Statue

Unless he exposed himself, there would be NO sexual crime.

So you're saying a sexual crime cannot be committed unless there's nudity involved? I don't think that's correct....
 
So you're saying a sexual crime cannot be committed unless there's nudity involved? I don't think that's correct....

I'm referring to this case. Do you think the kid should be put on the sexual predator list for gesturing a statue?
 
If there was any damage done to the statue, I would agree, however there was none. Again, I can flip off a bible all I want and it not being illegal. Blasphemy laws like this are unconsitutional and will be challenged as such. It's sad that people don't see that.

Physical damage is not always the requirement for a law. Trespass is a good example. This statue was someone else's property, not his own, nor did he have permission, Desecration is a non-damage type law as much as trespass is. Since the desecration is applied equally to both religious and non-religious objects blasphemy is a non-issue.
 
Physical damage is not always the requirement for a law. Trespass is a good example. This statue was someone else's property, not his own, nor did he have permission, Desecration is a non-damage type law as much as trespass is. Since the desecration is applied equally to both religious and non-religious objects blasphemy is a non-issue.

If I flip off a bible in a church there is NOTHING they can do to me legally. They can ask me to leave and if I don't THEN they can charge me with trespassing. Desecration needs to have damage.
 
Charging someone with a crime because a photograph offended people violates the first amendment.

I think hate crime laws violate the first amendment, too, but they're still in place. In my opinion, the photograph is merely evidence of the offense not the offense, itself. And I think obscenity laws are still in place and the community may consider such a photograph and such behavior to be obscene.
 
I think hate crime laws violate the first amendment, too, but they're still in place. In my opinion, the photograph is merely evidence of the offense not the offense, itself. And I think obscenity laws are still in place and the community may consider such a photograph and such behavior to be obscene.

One thing is certain. The kid wouldn't have it with a statue of Mohammed.
 
If I flip off a bible in a church there is NOTHING they can do to me legally. They can ask me to leave and if I don't THEN they can charge me with trespassing. Desecration needs to have damage.

Can you show this in the laws? For damage to be the criteria then it would need to be stated. Additionally, the standard for gestures vary. For example while flipping off someone else's bible would not be grounds for desecration taking their bible and rubbing it on your crotch would, even if you did not expose your gentiles. For that matter if you did it to my xbox desecration would also apply.
 
I'm referring to this case. Do you think the kid should be put on the sexual predator list for gesturing a statue?

We're mixing things here --- what I think and what is may be two different things. I believe US law does not require nudity for a sexual crime.
 
We're mixing things here --- what I think and what is may be two different things. I believe US law does not require nudity for a sexual crime.

It does when it is being done to an inanimate object.
 
Could you provide a citation that supports your view?

You are asking to prove a negative. The proper question would be for you to show where it does apply.
 
Not following your question, are you wanting to charge a statue with being nude?

You stated that the law required nudity for the charge to be a sex crime. I am asking if the nudity has to be on the part of only the perpetrator of the sex crime, or is nudity of the victim also applicable to charge the perpetrator? Note that your statement does not apply specifically to this case. For it to specifically apply you would have had to state to the effect of, "the perpetrator would have to have some kind of nudity exposure for a sex crime to apply in this case." But you did not so I am testing your ability to recognize what law says.
 
You stated that the law required nudity for the charge to be a sex crime. I am asking if the nudity has to be on the part of only the perpetrator of the sex crime, or is nudity of the victim also applicable to charge the perpetrator? Note that your statement does not apply specifically to this case. For it to specifically apply you would have had to state to the effect of, "the perpetrator would have to have some kind of nudity exposure for a sex crime to apply in this case." But you did not so I am testing your ability to recognize what law says.

Just jumping in here. According to uslegal.com (and not Pennsylvania law, which I don't know) the closest that the teenager would be accused of (if a sex crime were to be an accusation) would be lewd conduct.

Sex crimes refer to criminal offenses of a sexual nature.

Commonly known sex crimes include, rape, child molestation, sexual battery, lewd conduct, possession and distribution of child pornography, possession and distribution of obscene material, prostitution, solicitation of prostitution, pimping, pandering, indecent exposure, lewd act with a child, and penetration of the genital or anal region by a foreign Object.

It would then be up to the prosecutor, I imagine, to somehow successfully argue that lewd conduct occurred without a victim and without actual visual exposure of the genitals. I have no law expertise myself, but I still wouldn't find that argument very compelling.
 
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As for desecration, uslegal sez...

Desecration is the act of depriving something of its sacred character. For instance, the desecration of national flag is an offence. Desecration is the physical mistreatment which the actor knows will seriously offend one or more persons likely to observe or discover the action. The flag-desecration statute is intended to protect the physical integrity of the flag against impairments that would cause serious offense to others, and is aimed at protecting onlookers from being offended by the ideas expressed by the prohibited activity.

If state laws are consistent with uslegal's definition, then they cast an absurdly wide net and could easily infringe on first amendment rights in far more innocuous examples than the one in this thread.
 
Just jumping in here. According to uslegal.com (and not Pennsylvania law, which I don't know) the closest that the teenager would be accused of (if a sex crime were to be an accusation) would be lewd conduct.



It would then be up to the prosecutor, I imagine, to somehow successfully argue that lewd conduct occurred without a victim and without actual visual exposure of the genitals. I have no law expertise myself, but I still wouldn't find that argument very convincing.

Remember that I noted that he shifted to a general statement that nudity was required for any offense to be a sex crime. I'm asking him to bask that up. He can't of course, and once he tries I will slam him with an example that will undermine that particular argument so deep it will fall to China.
 
Remember that I noted that he shifted to a general statement that nudity was required for any offense to be a sex crime. I'm asking him to bask that up. He can't of course, and once he tries I will slam him with an example that will undermine that particular argument so deep it will fall to China.

It was probably an unwise generalization to make...
 
You are asking to prove a negative. The proper question would be for you to show where it does apply.

I'm asking you to provide a citation of US law for your comment in which you said:

TheNextEra said:
Unless he exposed himself, there would be NO sexual crime.
 
I think hate crime laws violate the first amendment, too, but they're still in place. In my opinion, the photograph is merely evidence of the offense not the offense, itself. And I think obscenity laws are still in place and the community may consider such a photograph and such behavior to be obscene.

That would depend on laws concerning the distribution of obscene material, and whether the photographs constitutes obscenity.
 
I'm asking you to provide a citation of US law for your comment in which you said:

Yes, and you are asking to prove a negative. That's like asking me to site the law that says I can legally say "Hobby Time" without going to jail. By default I'm correct unless you can show a law that says otherwise.

Can you show where gesturing to a statue is a sexual crime?
 
If state laws are consistent with uslegal's definition, then they cast an absurdly wide net and could easily infringe on first amendment rights in far more innocuous examples than the one in this thread.

Such first amendment right, with regards to property (as opposed to real estate) do require ownership of said property. This is why flag burning in and of it self is not illegal, but if one uses a flag that belongs to another person then applicable laws apply. Burning would be a destruction of property issue. Taking another person's flag and rubbing it all over your crotch would be a desecration issue.
 
Such first amendment right, with regards to property (as opposed to real estate) do require ownership of said property. This is why flag burning in and of it self is not illegal, but if one uses a flag that belongs to another person then applicable laws apply. Burning would be a destruction of property issue. Taking another person's flag and rubbing it all over your crotch would be a desecration issue.

I agree with the personal property aspect of this (though I think the punishment would be minimal as hell, except for trespassing which is a bit higher up in my book). I was referring to the hugely wide brush that uslegal uses to define desecration.
 
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