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You write "battered spouse," but your link says "battered woman defense." Why? Was your purpose to distort?
1) Seriously? Maybe try reading first before tossing out accusations
From the link:
The battered woman defense also referred to as battered woman syndrome is a defense used in court that ***the person*** accused of an assault / murder was suffering from ***battered person syndrome*** at the material time. ***Because the defense is most commonly used by women***, it is usually characterised in court as battered woman syndrome or battered wife syndrome...
...Gender is also irrelevant. In AG's Reference (No.24 of 2003) (2003) EWCA Crime 2451, the defendant, who had a low IQ, suffered prolonged taunting from his wife as to his illiteracy and impotency. During an argument, he stabbed her (and his son) and then wounded himself with a knife purchased during a break in the argument to harm himself rather than others. Sentences of three and a half years for each offence to be served concurrently were imposed, the sentencing judge referring to the defendant as having been worn down over months and eventually broken by the cruel taunting of his wife and being forbidden from seeing his children.
Has there been any single case where a man shot his wife because he was battered by her? There might be a few out there, but you do know it's primarily a woman's syndrome, right?
What exactly is the purpose of your reply here?