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California gay marriage ban overturned: report

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If its done through law I have no problem with it. When activist judges write new law without legal backing I do have a problem with it.

By "through law" you must mean through vote. We have an independent judiciary because our fundamental civil rights are not up for vote. Otherwise, why not put up religion and the right to bear arms to a vote?

That is the problem with claiming equal protection covers marriage. It doesn't and never has.

Wrong.

Supreme Court precedent holds that marriage is a fundamental Constitutional right...

Taylor versus Safely (1987): "the decision to marry is a fundamental right" and "marriage is an expression of emotional support and public commitment."

Zablocki versus Redhail (1978): "The right to marry is of fundamental importance for all individuals."

Cleveland Board of Education versus LaFleur (1974): "This court has long recognized that freedom of personal choice in matters of marriage and family life is one of the liberties protected by the Due Process Clause of the Fourteenth Amendment."

Loving versus Virginia (1967): The "freedom to marry has long been recognized as one of the vital personal rights essential to the orderly pursuit of happiness by free men."

And if it did you could not exclude any sexual orientation from wanting the same thing based on the same finding. That is why we have laws and ammendments.

Yeah, and if we don't defend the Constitutional Amendments we have, such at the 14th, then what is the point of having them?
 
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Same thing, just a different definition. Why is it ok to discriminate based on species or based on living objects? If sexuality is irrelevant to the legality of marriage, than why can't other sexualities have their unions imposed upon the definition of marriage?
If and when horses are allowed to enter into legal contracts, you will have a point. Ditto for children. If people would like to change that, those would be the first steps: Allowing animals and blowup dolls to enter into legally binding contracts. Then the whole marriage thing can go from there.

So, your first step to marrying your blow up doll, digsbe, is to petition your legislatures to recognize blowup dolls as people who can consent to enter legally binding contracts. Ditto for your dog.

When the govt does that, THEN we can discuss their ability to enter into marriage contracts.
 
A person's sexual orientation alone does not increase the likelihood of them contracting HIV.
Let me try to propose a hypothetical as to why someone might want to treat orientation as a risk factor. If the incidence of disease among those who share my orientation is high w/r to the general population - the cards are already stacked against me.

It is theoretically true that if I practice 100% safe sex that I can eliminate the risk, but we live in the real world here. I could do everything "right" - practice safe sex, eventually devote myself to a monogamous relationship, etc. Only to find out my partner has been cheating on me and has "given me the aids." Maybe my partner was a habitual cheater. Maybe it was a one time thing, but the risk was so much higher given the incidence of AIDS in my community. These are just examples of how one's sexual orientation could place you at higher risk.

There are lots of other hypothetical correlates I can come up with that would contribute to increased risk - maybe people in community A are more "desirious" of each other, making self control more difficult, etc. As things get complicated, it becomes exceedingly difficult to map out all of the mediating variables.
 
For many, homosexuality is considered deviant, that is a moral stance.

Just a quick comment on this. Your morals are irrelevant to the discussion. If you are morally opposed to homosexuality, don't engage in it. If you are morally opposed to others engaging in homosexuality, tough ****. You have no right to NOT have your moral sensabilities offended.

Oh... homosexuality has been determined to NOT be a deviance in a clinical sense. When bestiality or pedophilia receive the same determination, your argument would make sense. Since they have not, your argument does not.
 
Let me try to propose a hypothetical as to why someone might want to treat orientation as a risk factor. If the incidence of disease among those who share my orientation is high w/r to the general population - the cards are already stacked against me.

It is theoretically true that if I practice 100% safe sex that I can eliminate the risk, but we live in the real world here. I could do everything "right" - practice safe sex, eventually devote myself to a monogamous relationship, etc. Only to find out my partner has been cheating on me and has "given me the aids." Maybe my partner was a habitual cheater. Maybe it was a one time thing, but the risk was so much higher given the incidence of AIDS in my community. These are just examples of how one's sexual orientation could place you at higher risk.

There are lots of other hypothetical correlates I can come up with that would contribute to increased risk - maybe people in community A are more "desirious" of each other, making self control more difficult, etc. As things get complicated, it becomes exceedingly difficult to map out all of the mediating variables.

You argument is flawed and I will show you why. If you practice 100% safe sex, devote yourself to a monogamous relationship, and do everything "right" you could not contract HIV even if your partner was cheating. If you did all those things, his cheating would be irrelevant, since you protected yourself and did everything "right". You would have had to made an error in behavior to contract HIV. See? Orientation has nothing to do with it. Behavior does.
 
Did I mention pedophilia? And why can't an animal consent? Why can't a child consent? There is no magical maturation that goes on between 17 and 18. Animals can consent, just not the same way humans can.

In the legal sense, consent is not simply the ability to agree or give permission, but the ability to fully comprehend and understand the terms to what they are agreeeing or giving permission to. As such, the law holds that animals and children are not capable of consent.

My point isn't the legality of it, it's the logic behind imposing homosexual unions upon everyone because sexuality is protected under the equal protection clause.

Sexuality is not protected under the equal protection clause. Marriage is. And Walker didn't argue that same sex marriage prohibitions were unconstitutional because they discriminated against sexual orientation. He argued they were unconstitutional because they discriminated against sex. I suggest you actually go read the ruling before you comment further.

If a man wants to marry a blow up doll, why can't he? It's non living. The ability to consent is a moral stance. It's a moral belief that you can't marry a dog, or doll, because they "can't" consent. When pansexuals and zoophiles would all tell you that they can and that you have no right to impose your morality on them.

This has nothing to do wtih imposing morality. This has to do with upholding the Federal Constitution. The will of the people is the Constitution of the United States of America, not a ballot measure passed by a slim majority of California voters, nor any other ballot measure passed in any other state. The judge determined that the will of the voters in California violated the rights of a minority guaranteed by the federal Constitution. Those rights were equal protection under the law as guaranteed by the Equal Protection Clause and the right to Due Process. The law is written, "No State shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any State deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law; nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws."

Supreme Court precedent holds that marriage is a fundamental Constitutional right...

Taylor versus Safely (1987): "the decision to marry is a fundamental right" and "marriage is an expression of emotional support and public commitment."

Zablocki versus Redhail (1978): "The right to marry is of fundamental importance for all individuals."

Cleveland Board of Education versus LaFleur (1974): "This court has long recognized that freedom of personal choice in matters of marriage and family life is one of the liberties protected buy the Due Process Clause of the Fourteenth Amendment."

Loving versus Virginia (1967): The "freedom to marry has long been recognized as one of the vital personal rights essential to the orderly pursuit of happiness by free men."

The judge defended the will of the people, the federal Constitution; by overturning Proposition 8, which sought to mandate gender roles and restrict same sex couples to a culturally inferior institution by excluding them from marriage and the cultural dignity, respect, and stature inherent in marriage. The state has no interest in excluding one group from a fundamental right without rational basis and so the judge was obligated to overturn it.

For many, homosexuality is considered deviant, that is a moral stance.

Indeed, and they are entitled to their moral stance. However, they are not entitled to place their morals above the Federal Constitution.
 
You argument is flawed and I will show you why. If you practice 100% safe sex, devote yourself to a monogamous relationship, and do everything "right" you could not contract HIV even if your partner was cheating. If you did all those things, his cheating would be irrelevant, since you protected yourself and did everything "right". You would have had to made an error in behavior to contract HIV. See? Orientation has nothing to do with it. Behavior does.
You are confusing correlation and causation again and still don't understand what a risk factor is.
 
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Just a quick comment on this. Your morals are irrelevant to the discussion. If you are morally opposed to homosexuality, don't engage in it. If you are morally opposed to others engaging in homosexuality, tough ****. You have no right to NOT have your moral sensabilities offended.

Oh... homosexuality has been determined to NOT be a deviance in a clinical sense. When bestiality or pedophilia receive the same determination, your argument would make sense. Since they have not, your argument does not.
I wasn't the one who brought up morality. I was responding to the comment that bestiality is not recognized as marriage because it is deviant. And my morality is allowed to play into my vote. Others have no right to impose their morality that homosexuality is moral and their unions are "marriage" onto everyone living in a state.

So now you are bringing up morality? There have also been clinical studies that would suggest homosexuality develops due to sexual abuse, physical abuse, and emotional instability. Bias clinical studies mean nothing to me.
If and when horses are allowed to enter into legal contracts, you will have a point. Ditto for children. If people would like to change that, those would be the first steps: Allowing animals and blowup dolls to enter into legally binding contracts. Then the whole marriage thing can go from there.
My point is why aren't those unions equally protected? Why can't a guy marry a horse if all sexualities are equal and deserving of having their unions recognized as marriage? It's logically inconsistent to uphold homosexuality and denounce others based on the idea that homosexuality is protected under the equal protection clause. And that the clause calls for the imposition of homosexuality into all legal definitions of marriage. With this ruling, it is logically inconsistent to claim homosexuality cannot be banned from marriage because it's protected by the equal protection clause, yet banning others because they are "immoral" and not deserving of the same protection.
So, your first step to marrying your blow up doll, digsbe, is to petition your legislatures to recognize blowup dolls as people who can consent to enter legally binding contracts. Ditto for your dog.

When the govt does that, THEN we can discuss their ability to enter into marriage contracts.
Does consent matter? Is that not a moral position? What if some believe that blow up dolls and animals can consent? It's a moral stance that states "I believe these things cannot consent, thus they cannot marry." Regardless, the ruling states homosexuality cannot be banned from marriage recognition because it's protected under the equal protection clause. Logically, shouldn't all sexualities be protected too? And under the same logic, would it not also be illegal to ban other sexual unions from marriage if sexualities are equal?
 
Let me try to propose a hypothetical as to why someone might want to treat orientation as a risk factor. If the incidence of disease among those who share my orientation is high w/r to the general population - the cards are already stacked against me.

It is theoretically true that if I practice 100% safe sex that I can eliminate the risk, but we live in the real world here. I could do everything "right" - practice safe sex, eventually devote myself to a monogamous relationship, etc. Only to find out my partner has been cheating on me and has "given me the aids." Maybe my partner was a habitual cheater. Maybe it was a one time thing, but the risk was so much higher given the incidence of AIDS in my community. These are just examples of how one's sexual orientation could place you at higher risk.

There are lots of other hypothetical correlates I can come up with that would contribute to increased risk - maybe people in community A are more "desirious" of each other, making self control more difficult, etc. As things get complicated, it becomes exceedingly difficult to map out all of the mediating variables.

Actually, it was the partner cheating that got you infected with AIDs, Not your orientation nor your partner's orientation. Can you provide evidence that gay men are more likely to cheat on their partners? Even assuming you could, can you provide evidence that gay men cheat on their partners because they themselves are gay? If not, then your argument is irrelevant. It has nothing to do with sexual orientation.

But cutting through the crap...

You are trying to argue the fact that gay men make up a smaller population pool that has several times the rate of HIV than the general population pool has to do with sexual orientation. This is false. Gay men as a population are several times more likely to have HIV because they are more likely to engage in risky sexual behaviors. The question is still about risky sexual behaviors, not about sexual orientation.
 
LMAO
I see somebody trying to use the slippery slope argument, it has, is and will always be uneducated, stupid, based on inspiring fear and the abandonment of logic. Its actually the most sad and pathetic of tactics.

If we let women vote we might as well just let my dog vote too
If we let blacks vote we might as well just let my horse vote too
We we let interracial marriage happen the next thing you know we'll be legally letting someone marry a monkey or a tree.

They were dumb when said years ago and are even more stupid now because common sense, logic and history proves them a fallacy. LMAO
 
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My point is why aren't those unions equally protected? Why can't a guy marry a horse if all sexualities are equal and deserving of having their unions recognized as marriage?
Has nothing to do with sexuality. Has to do with horses not being persons allowed to enter into contracts.

Does consent matter? Is that not a moral position? What if some believe that blow up dolls and animals can consent? It's a moral stance that states "I believe these things cannot consent, thus they cannot marry." Regardless, the ruling states homosexuality cannot be banned from marriage recognition because it's protected under the equal protection clause. Logically, shouldn't all sexualities be protected too? And under the same logic, would it not also be illegal to ban other sexual unions from marriage if sexualities are equal?
I believe that if you can prove that horses and blow up dolls are capable of understanding legal contracts, and capable of understanding the implications of them, then that would be a HUGE step towards the government granting them adult personhood rights to enter into contracts.

It's not a moral stance or belief so much as a scientific one. Prove that blowup dolls are capable of understanding contracts and their legal implications and there ya go! You'll have your new bride. Morality has nothing to do with it.

So, once more... this is about GENDER, not sexual orientation. How many times does that need to be spelled out for you? No one asks you your sexual orientation when you get a marriage license.
 
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Actually, it was the partner cheating that got you infected with AIDs,
Well, no we've been through this... (See Marduc's post)
can you provide evidence that gay men cheat on their partners because they themselves are gay? If not, then your argument is irrelevant. It has nothing to do with sexual orientation.
I don't need to do any of that for my argument to relevant, I'm describing a risk factor.

You are trying to argue the fact that gay men make up a smaller population pool that has several times the rate of HIV than the general population pool has to do with sexual orientation. This is false. Gay men as a population are several times more likely to have HIV because they are more likely to engage in risky sexual behaviors. The question is still about risky sexual behaviors, not about sexual orientation.
I went out my way to propose the example as a hypothetical - never once used the term "gay" or "homosexual" and did not argue or imply that any of the above was true.
 
Gay men as a population are several times more likely to have HIV because they are more likely to engage in risky sexual behaviors.
Why are they more likely to engage in risky sexual behaviors?
 
Well, no we've been through this... (See Marduc's post)

I don't need to do any of that for my argument to relevant, I'm describing a risk factor.

No, you aren't describing a risk factor relevant to sexual orientation unless you can prove that gay men are more likely to cheat on their spouses because they are gay.

I went out my way to propose the example as a hypothetical - never once used the term "gay" or "homosexual" and did not argue or imply that any of the above was true.

I'm not sure what you are suggesting then or why it is relevant to this thread.
 
I'm not talking about polygamy. I'm talking about other sexual orientations such as pansexuals, bestiality, bisexuals, or any other sexuality that someone could claim to have. Why is that sexuality unequal to homosexuality? And if the logic is that homosexual unions fall under the equal protection clause, why can't others as well?

Pansexuals and bisexuals can marry. They just have to pick the person they want to marry. I have a female friend who is bisexual, but fell in love with a man and she's committed to him. Just as when you marry a woman, you might find other women attractive, you just don't act on it. That's common sense humanity.

Bestiality -easy. Animals can't sign contracts. Animals can't consent to sex with a human, therefore it's animal abuse.

This is a gender based. That's it. It violates equal protection because a man has the right to marry a woman, but a woman does not (and vice versa). To discriminate as such, the state is required to prove that harm would be caused to the state were the discrimination lifted. Considering 18,000 same-sex couples were already married in the state and harm could not be argued, it had to be overturned.

You are required by the Constitution to treat all citizens equally regardless of gender unless it is proven to be in the state's interest. Even if a majority thinks it's in their interest, that matters not. In the South (less so in the North), a majority thought that blacks and white shouldn't marry and passed laws that said so. The Supreme Court said that Virginia failed to show how such discrimination was necessary to preserve order in the state. It was therefore overturned.

This is no different. It does not open doors for polygamists. It does not open doors for pedophiles. It does not open doors for beastialists (is that word?). All of these restrictions are easy to prove where harm would occur to the state and its citizens were they to argue for marriage rights. This has been shown to you and other on multiple occasions.

It's really not that hard to figure out.

Those of you who are so adamantly against same-sex marriage will look to your grandchildren just as bad as the people who fought to keep people of different races from inter-marrying. You won't look noble. You will be viewed as either quaint or bigoted by future generations. It's your choice.
 
You are confusing correlation and causation again and still don't understand what a risk factor is.

No, YOU are confusing correlation and causation, again, and still don't understand the concept of a risk factor, or orientation, or behavior.
 
Why are they more likely to engage in risky sexual behaviors?

For starters...

Because they don't have to contend with pregnancy, and thus are less likely to use condoms.
Because they generally don't have the social norms of an institution like marriage to promote life long mongamous relationships.
Because the gay culture has, until recently, encouraged unrestricted sexual expression among gay men.
Because schools don't offer homosexual sexual education which could educate people about the risks of such behaviors and how to be responsible.
 
Well, no we've been through this... (See Marduc's post)

And why are you going to latch onto my post and try to misrepresent it? If the partner had not cheated he would not have the virus..(and no he did not cheat because he was gay, he cheated because he was unfaithful) therefore it was the partner cheating that caused the disease to spread, IE that is the cause (to be redundantly redundant).

For someone who claimed this

I'm tired of all this causation/correlation crap myself. I only bring it up because people have been going on and on about it in this thread with respect to sexual orientation.

you sure seem hung up on continuously harping on it, kinda makes it seem like a very disingenuous statement <shrug>
 
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I wasn't the one who brought up morality. I was responding to the comment that bestiality is not recognized as marriage because it is deviant. And my morality is allowed to play into my vote.

Your morality can certainly influence your vote. I never said it couldn't.

Others have no right to impose their morality that homosexuality is moral and their unions are "marriage" onto everyone living in a state.

No one is imposing morality on YOU. YOU are not required to marry a homosexual. If your morality is offended by others marrying homosexuals, tough ****. You have no right to NOT be offended.



So now you are bringing up morality? There have also been clinical studies that would suggest homosexuality develops due to sexual abuse, physical abuse, and emotional instability. Bias clinical studies mean nothing to me.

If biased clinical studies mean nothing to you, than everything you just stated is irrelevant. Prove your assertions with those studies and we'll see just how valid they are.
 
Has nothing to do with sexuality. Has to do with horses not being persons allowed to enter into contracts.
Tell that to PETA and many atheists who believe all life is equal with human life. Again, that is a moral stance. Many believe that animals can consent. And many believe there is no difference or worth between human and animal life. It has to do with the fact that zoophilia is considered immoral by most.
I believe that if you can prove that horses and blow up dolls are capable of understanding legal contracts, and capable of understanding the implications of them, then that would be a HUGE step towards the government granting them adult personhood rights to enter into contracts.
So, should the mentally ill be banned from marriage? Should everyone be forced to read the marriage contract and take a comprehension test on it? My point is that if sexuality is protected by the equal protection clause, than why not other sexualities? I think your argument is logically consistent though, and I agree about consent. My point is why can't animals even enter into a civil union with someone? Why can't a man legally leave his belongings to his pet dog under some form of contract? Why is it ok to discriminate on other sexualities but homosexuality gets a pass?
It's not a moral stance or belief so much as a scientific one. Prove that blowup dolls are capable of understanding contracts and their legal implications and there ya go! You'll have your new bride. Morality has nothing to do with it.
I stated before, if it's about consent I agree with you. However, is it wrong to discriminate against other sexualities and not give them some form of union that is on par with that sexualities union? I concede that you are right in the consent issue. And it's foolish of me to argue otherwise
So, once more... this is about GENDER, not sexual orientation. How many times does that need to be spelled out for you? No one asks you your sexual orientation when you get a marriage license.

The roles of marriage is husband and wife. Those are gender specific roles. It's not wrong to say a woman can't be a husband, because she cannot be. It's not wrong to say a man can be a wife, because he cannot be. On a straight marriage license, a man cannot register for the position of wife, nor can a woman register for the position of husband. The terms husband and wife are gender specific, and they have gender specific roles (such as childbirth, impregnation, etc).

Your morality can certainly influence your vote. I never said it couldn't.
Fair enough, sorry for a false accusation

No one is imposing morality on YOU. YOU are not required to marry a homosexual. If your morality is offended by others marrying homosexuals, tough ****. You have no right to NOT be offended.
Yes they are, the state is taking a moral stance that homosexual unions are just as much a marriage as a traditional heterosexual one. The state would be acting upon a moral issue and taking a moral stance against the will and morals of the majority. I have said this before, there would be no legal recourse or complaint if the majority voted for a marriage definition hat included same sex relationships. The state would be imposing one moral stance as superior to the other. That is absolutely imposing morals upon an entire society.


If biased clinical studies mean nothing to you, than everything you just stated is irrelevant. Prove your assertions with those studies and we'll see just how valid they are.
Here is an essay that was written and is backed up by numerous scientific sources that states that homosexuality may develop due to sexual, physical, and emotional abuse. http://www.home60515.com/3.html
 
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You keep trying to make this about morality. It has nothing to do with morality. We live in a Consitutional Republic. That means the law of the land and the ulimate will of the people is the Federal Constitution. A state is perfectly entitled to legistlate morality. However, a state cannot legistlate morality in a way that violates the Federal Consitution. The judge found that Proposition 8 violated the Equal Protection Clause of the 14th amendment of the Federal Consitution. Therefore he overturned Prop 8.
 
You keep trying to make this about morality. It has nothing to do with morality. We live in a Consitutional Republic. That means the law of the land and the ulimate will of the people is the Federal Constitution. A state is perfectly entitled to legistlate morality. However, a state cannot legistlate morality in a way that violates the Federal Consitution. The judge found that Proposition 8 violated the Equal Protection Clause of the 14th amendment of the Federal Consitution. Therefore he overturned Prop 8.

Then you have to let everyone in under that general finding. Every alternative lifestyle dealing with people. Nothing could be exempt.
 
Then you have to let everyone in under that general finding. Every alternative lifestyle dealing with people. Nothing could be exempt.

Except, Walker didn't base his ruling on sexual orientation. He based his ruling on the fact that the state had no interest in denying men the right to marry men and women the right to marry women. In other words, he based his ruling on that Prop 8 discrimianted against sex, not sexual orientation. He argued that the state had no interest in mandating gender roles.
 
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