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Yes... predicated on the idea that the legitimate outcome of legal elections violates the law. Absurd on its face. Imgaine if we changed an election procedure with the expressed purpose of getting a while male elected.The ruling wasn't that Hispanics get more votes. It was that everyone gets more votes.
Election law is there to make sure that everyone has the ability to vote freely everyone's ballot is counted according to the same set of standards - the OUTCOME of the electiuon isn;t its concern in any way shape or form.
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