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Residents get 6 votes each in suburban NY election(edited)

The ruling wasn't that Hispanics get more votes. It was that everyone gets more votes.
Yes... predicated on the idea that the legitimate outcome of legal elections violates the law. Absurd on its face. Imgaine if we changed an election procedure with the expressed purpose of getting a while male elected.

Election law is there to make sure that everyone has the ability to vote freely everyone's ballot is counted according to the same set of standards - the OUTCOME of the electiuon isn;t its concern in any way shape or form.
 
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Folks, this is possibly some of the worst we've seen yet.

Residents get 6 votes each in suburban NY election - Yahoo! News



This makes Barney irate and high-pitched in voice for two reasons:

1. The judge invoked the lack of elected Hispanic representation as a VIOLATION of the Voting Rights Act, and proceeded to ORDER the district to adopt measures to ENSURE the election of a Hispanic candidate, regardless of substance or character, to the city council just because of his/her skin color.

2. The US Department of Justice WAS involved and once again Chicago style politics are deliberately pushing elections in the favor of state-sponsored candidates.

Some people will be like, "But everyone gets six votes!"

But you don't understand. There are more white candidates than Hispanic candidates. Despite a 50% Hispanic population, turnout is very low for their community and a six vote tally will allow the Hispanic voters to pool their six votes in the smaller Hispanic contingency of candidates, statistically outvoting Caucasian voters who would spread their votes over all the candidates rather than just the Hispanic ones.

A very clever and very sinister ploy to hand pick candidates. Not to mention completely unconstitutional.

This is obviously an ACORN district.
 
This is obviously an ACORN district.

Ooh, I have a vague conspiracy theory too:
The CIA did it in a plot to poison our drinking water.
 
The judge's move wasn't unconstitutional, as he's just doing what Congress provided for in the Voting Rights Act. Because he's a district court judge, he's not entitled to hold that the VRA is unconstitutional. He has to follow the precedents laid down for him by the Second Circuit and the Supreme Court. As a result, it would be consistent with a conservative philosophy (however you want to define that) to apply the law in this fashion, even if he personally thinks that the law is unconstitutional.

Either way, thank you for being so up front and polite. :2wave:

You make a good point here. I need to take a very good look at the Voting Rights Act. From what I can tell so far it was done under the 15th amendment. What I do know is the 15th amendment has nothing in it that should allow for the actions that were taken, because nobodies vote was being denied except for maybe illegal immigrants. Which leads me to question if the Voting Rights Act itself is unconstitutional if it was what they used to justify these actions. I'll try to take a look soon and see if I can find out what part of the Voting Rights Act they are using to do this. Thanks for the correction to my previous post.
 
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You make a good point here. I need to take a very good look at the Voting Rights Act. From what I can tell so far it was done under the 15th amendment. What I do know is the 15th amendment has nothing in it that should allow for the actions that were taken, because nobodies vote was being denied except for maybe illegal immigrants. Which leads me to question if the Voting Rights Act itself is unconstitutional if it was what they used to justify these actions. I'll try to take a look soon and see if I can find out what part of the Voting Rights Act they are using to do this. Thanks for the correction to my previous post.
One thing that the VRA does NOT do is give ANYONE the power to declare that the legitimate result of a legal election violates the Constitution, OR allow judges (or anyone else) to create election law that has the intent to favor a given result for any election.
 
... I still think that this 6 vote thing wouldn't even accomplish this goal of getting more latinos elected. Seriously, who casts votes that spread out among several candidates? That defeats the entire purpose of your vote!
 
... I still think that this 6 vote thing wouldn't even accomplish this goal of getting more latinos elected. Seriously, who casts votes that spread out among several candidates? That defeats the entire purpose of your vote!
Let me state yet again that election law is NEVER supposed to have an intent to get more/less of ANYONE elected.
 
Let me state yet again that election law is NEVER supposed to have an intent to get more/less of ANYONE elected.

Argue that with Scalia and Thomas. Those dirty liberals.

If the judge finds that the current method disenfranchises certain groups, they can take actions to remedy the situation.
 
Ooh, I have a vague conspiracy theory too:
The CIA did it in a plot to poison our drinking water.

You didn't get my humor, sorry.
 
Argue that with Scalia and Thomas. Those dirty liberals.
It doesn't matter WHO says so - creating election law that intentionally favors the election of --anyone-- absolutely and positively runs against the entire idea of 'fair' electiions.

If we're going to handicap elections, why bother with them at all?
 
The ruling wasn't that Hispanics get more votes. It was that everyone gets more votes.

And again, this was done by George Bush's justice department and a judge appointed by George Bush. Why are you whining about liberals?

Hell, even Scalia and Thomas have ruled on cases like these and find them to be constitutional. Those are some big liberal judges, right?
Holder v. Hall, 512 U.S. 874 (June 30, 1994).

First, the fact that Scalia said that the law as written would require one thing doesn't mean that he's saying the law is a good idea.

Second, Holder v. Hall reversed the lower court's attempt to create a remedy under Sec. 2 of the VRA.
 
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