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The US code means that the killer executed an innocent man.
That doesn't make him a terrorist.
The US code means that the killer executed an innocent man.
To the best of my knowledge, it is not disputed that he shot a man in a church. Nothing there presumes a guilty conviction, only the facts of the case as presented.
Didn't you hear? Any act which frightens someone ever so slightly is now terrorism :roll:
As defined in the dictionary, terrorism is using force or threats to intimidate. What this doctor did was to murder someone, as an act of intimidation against other abortion doctors.terrorism definition
ter·ror·ism (ter′ər iz′əm)
noun
- the act of terrorizing; use of force or threats to demoralize, intimidate, and subjugate, esp. such use as a political weapon or policy
- the demoralization and intimidation produced in this way
If that were true then he would be charged with terrorism.
But he's not.
The panty-bomber wasn't even charged with terrorism.
rof You could shoot someone and not commit any crime.
I hope you realize you're generalizing here. While there are many people who applaud what the guy did (jamesrage, for example), I think that the consensus even among conservatives would be that the rule of law must be upheld, and that what this guy did was premeditated murder, which usually earns one either a life in prison or the death penalty.
At least you're using Webster now...at least that looks like Webster...but the actual legal code is still more authoritative for the technical definition than the common vernacular.terrorism definition
ter·ror·ism (ter′ər iz′əm)
noun
As defined in the dictionary, terrorism is using force or threats to intimidate. What this doctor did was to murder someone, as an act of intimidation against other abortion doctors.
- the act of terrorizing; use of force or threats to demoralize, intimidate, and subjugate, esp. such use as a political weapon or policy
- the demoralization and intimidation produced in this way
Again, you are being two faced, Jerry, applying the legal definition to the killer, and refusing to apply it to the doctor.
At least you're using Webster now...at least that looks like Webster...but the actual legal code is still more authoritative for the technical definition than the common vernacular.terrorism definition
ter·ror·ism (ter′ər iz′əm)
noun
- the act of terrorizing; use of force or threats to demoralize, intimidate, and subjugate, esp. such use as a political weapon or policy
- the demoralization and intimidation produced in this way
Yes, my father did, it was a hunting accident. In this case, it was not a hunting accident. In this case, is any one disputing he intentionally shot a man?
terrorism definition
ter·ror·ism (ter′ər iz′əm)
noun
- the act of terrorizing; use of force or threats to demoralize, intimidate, and subjugate, esp. such use as a political weapon or policy
- the demoralization and intimidation produced in this way
At least you're using Webster now...at least that looks like Webster...but the actual legal code is still more authoritative for the technical definition than the common vernacular.
U.S. Code definition of domestic terrorism :
http://codes.lp.findlaw.com/uscode/18/I/113B/2331
(5) the term "domestic terrorism" means activities that -
(A) involve acts dangerous to human life that are a violation
of the criminal laws of the United States or of any State;
(B) appear to be intended -
(i) to intimidate or coerce a civilian population;
(ii) to influence the policy of a government by
intimidation or coercion; or
(iii) to affect the conduct of a government by mass
destruction, assassination, or kidnapping; and
(C) occur primarily within the territorial jurisdiction of
the United States.
Yes. He is a terrorist. The intention behind his act is clear. You don't assassinate one abortion provider because you dislike him. You kill him to send a message. The message? Change policy or he'll keep going.
Then don't be such a hypocrite. According to the legal code, the man is a murderer. You CAN'T have it both ways.
rof you can intentionally shoot a man and not commit any crime.
U.S. Code definition of domestic terrorism :
18 U.S.C. § 2331 : US Code - Section 2331: Definitions
Yes. He is a terrorist. The intention behind his act is clear. You don't assassinate one abortion provider because you dislike him. You kill him to send a message. The message? Change policy or he'll keep going.
He doesn't meet the criteria: "to intimidate or coerce a civilian population;"
As I said before, he was not trying to influence policy, he was trying to stop one person from continuing a behavior. Right or wrong that doesn't make him a terrorist.
So he wasn't trying to intimidate a civilian population by killing a person who provides that same population with a service? You're trying too hard Jerry.
U.S. Code definition of domestic terrorism :
18 U.S.C. § 2331 : US Code - Section 2331: Definitions
Yes. He is a terrorist. The intention behind his act is clear. You don't assassinate one abortion provider because you dislike him. You kill him to send a message. The message? Change policy or he'll keep going.
No, the intention behind his act is not clear. It's totally plausible that his motive was to murder a man he hated. Just because his motive has political undertones doesn't mean he was a terrorist.
Of course it is. The only people who this doesn't seem clear to is people who are pro-life.
Legally, as in you think the law will stipulate that he killed a mass murderer? Here is where I stick the final nail into your coffin in this debate. Under the law, the doctor was not a mass murderer. That makes the killer's intentional shooting of a man, who is NOT legally defined as a mass murderer, a murder, and a criminal act.
Thanks for playing.
In a pretrial hearing Friday, Kansas Judge Warren Wilbert said he might allow the defense to present evidence that Mr. Roeder acted in defense of others -- in this case, fetuses -- whom he believed to be under imminent threat. The judge said he would make that call as the trial proceeded, on a witness-by-witness basis.
<snip>
Under Kansas law, voluntarily manslaughter applies when an individual uses deadly force in the unreasonable but genuine belief that he was compelled to do so.
The question is not rather he's a murderer, but rather he's a terrorist.
You claimed in the OP that he is a terrorist, and that simply is not so.
So he wasn't trying to intimidate a civilian population by killing a person who provides that same population with a service?
1) A shooting, for the purpose of intimidation, to change policy, IS terrorism. It's the dictionary definition.
rof you can intentionally shoot a man and not commit any crime.
You're just assuming that was his intent. What evidence do you have to support this implication?
The question is not rather he's a murderer, but rather he's a terrorist.
You claimed in the OP that he is a terrorist, and that simply is not so.