India was not a territory or a mandate it was a nation-state conquered by the British, "Palestine" was a territorial mandate previously held by the Ottoman empire and the titles of the public lands which the Ottomans owned were transferred to the British following WW1.But the British had no right to it as they had no right to the owned land of India. Do you think the British retained that land in India even after 1947?
There was no "Palestinian" nation it was a territory held by succeeding empires.The waste land of a nation is the collective land of its people, so your point supports mine.
Not before 1947.
Um yes it was, it was an empire actually that was conquered by the British.
You don't have the slightest idea how sovereignty works do you? There has never been a sovereign Palestinian state, the British crown became the sovereign ruler in Palestine after title was passed from the previous sovereign IE the Ottoman Empire.The crown land is neither here nor there, the British have no right to it, it is the people's ie mostly the Arabs.
The partition borders do not take into account district lines so those stats are meaningless to my point.The Arabs however own much more land that the Jews in almost all districts, so I win.
India was a sovereign independent nation before being conquered by the British. The British did not conquer the Palestinian Mandate title was passed to them from the previous sovereign.And the Indians didn't own their waste land but that doesn't make it anyone else's. I have debunked this. Next.
That map is from your wiki link, those are your statistics in map form, I only provided it to demonstrate how it is irrelevant to my point because it doesn't take into account the partition border lines.No they didn't. My stats prove that and so do yours. Note that on your little map the Arabs own more land in all districts than the Jews.
There was an India.So? There was never an India. Doesn't mean they have no collective right to the land.
[quote]Where is this proof the Jews owned more land.
According to British statistics, more than 70% of the land in what would become Israel was not owned by Arab farmers, it belonged to the mandatory government. Those lands reverted to Israeli control after the departure of the British. Nearly 9% of the land was owned by Jews and about 3% by Arabs who became citizens of Israel. That means only about 18% belonged to Arabs who left the country before and after the Arab invasion of Israel.6
6 Moshe Aumann, "Land Ownership in Palestine, 1880-1948," in Michael Curtis, et al., The Palestinians, (NJ: Transaction Books, 1975), p. 29, quoting p. 257 of the Government of Palestine, Survey of Palestine.
Myths & Facts - Partition
Your map is by district and does not take into account the partition border lines thus it is irrelevant to the conversation.My statistics show that is wrong, and you just ignore them, and your map does as well.
Um no most of the immigration was completely legal it was the illegal Arab immigration that was not restricted by the British because they wanted Arab backing during WW2.Actually they were about 10% in 1918. They grew, often through illegal immigration or the help of a colonial power, but where not a majority.
They were a majority at the time of partition, furthermore; your source does not state if it was for the entire mandate or just the mandate west of the Jordan river.The Demographics Of Palestine In 1918
The findings of the investigation, known as the King-Crane Commission Report make it clear that Muslims made up 80% of the population of Palestine at that time, while Christians made up less than 10% and Jews slightly more than 10%. The report further clarifies that both Muslims and Christians, or somewhere between 80% and 90% of the people of Palestine, were emphatically and almost unanimously opposed to the erection of a Zionist state in Palestine, while Jews were enthusiastically in favor.
Man I just pwned you good.