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When? When did the high courts consider blacks and women "before' and not recognize their rights?They also considered them...and found them not equal and did not recognize any rights for them.
Also I notice that you could not provide this:
But if they did, again, it would require the enabling of the violation of many rights for women (since unborn and born cannot be treated equally)...why would they do that? What compelling legal reasons or foundation would you offer the courts to get them to change their decision?