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Cruz introduces bill defending states' rights on marriage

Rogue, I'm just looking for a decision based on merits, an honest focus on the real issue.
Some arguments are much too broadly drawn and open to unintended (or intended) consequences if successful.
About that argument, the term "Pandora's box" comes to mind. Overused, yeah, but sometimes relevant anyway.

What are you talking about? What "merits"?

Marriage is a legal kinship arrangement, just like adoption or having a child. There is no legal requirement for love or attraction in marriage. There is no additional legal arguments based even off that view that people don't need to love each other to be able to fulfill the legal obligations of being another person's spouse.
 
One has a racial component, and was does not.
The other has the gender component. How are the two different and why?

You are comparing one thing that includes all people
That is simply not true. Are all people the same gender?

Doesn't work.
Your reasoning you mean...

And to be clear, my point is that the federal government does not have the power to define marriage, that is something for the States to decide.
Why? Based on what?
 
No, that is not your logic, that is your thinking, your attempt to justify the difference between how you feel about same sex couples and how you feel about interracial couples and the laws that affect/affected each of them. Logically, everyone is not treated the same because men cannot marry men, but women can marry men, just as a white person could not marry a black person, but a black person could marry a black person.

Ah, so you want to separate people out based on gender, but you don't want to separate them based on race? I don't want to separate them on either. That sounds like... Hmmm. Well, I'll just call it flawed logic.


In both cases, people are prevented from doing something based on a characteristic such as race or sex (note, that is sex, not sexuality). Or, according to your logic, everyone is treated equally because everyone is restricted from marrying someone based on that characteristic of either race or sex.

Nope. Got it wrong, I haven't said that. And don't try to draw me into your SSM debate, I'm talking about Constitutional issues, not that little stuff.

It was your misuse of logic that is the problem, the same logic that was attempted to justify interracial marriage bans, you are using to attempt to justify same sex marriage bans.

Again, flawed logic on your part.
 
No, it isn't. We take into account all the arguments that come with laws, from both sides, why the law is in place and how and why a person is being prevented from doing something others can do. Slippery slope doesn't take into account arguments that are solely related to the law that is being claimed as similar enough to another that it would be taken down by such a ruling.

Example: If same sex marriage becomes legal across the country, some claim that the slippery slope this causes means that incest restrictions or polygamy restrictions must also follow because they assume that the logic being used to take down same sex marriage bans is simply same sex couples aren't allowed to marry and that treats them differently than opposite sex couples.
But this isn't true. The case and rulings are and will be much more complicated than this. The states' arguments for why same sex couples shouldn't marry is not the same as the states' arguments for why incestuous couples shouldn't be allowed to marry or for why a person shouldn't be allowed to have multiple spouses.

That depends on the arguments made and how the ruling is worded.
It should be narrowly focused on the actual issue at hand.
 
What are you talking about? What "merits"?

Marriage is a legal kinship arrangement, just like adoption or having a child. There is no legal requirement for love or attraction in marriage. There is no additional legal arguments based even off that view that people don't need to love each other to be able to fulfill the legal obligations of being another person's spouse.
see #379
 
You mean you can't envision any examples without my help?

It's not incumbant upon me to create your argument for you.

I get to ask some questions too so, again, is this true or not

When you have repeatedly failed to actually engage in any kind of conversation or offe rany rational thought against what I've been saying, it's rather laughable that you want to get uppity over me not answering a non-sensical question that you posed.

"the slippery slope kind of argument is really the foundation of a system of Law that's built on personal freedom." .

No, a systme of law bulit on personal freedom is not singularly built upon a "slippery slope" argument. If it was, we would have no laws on the books because it'd potentially lead to more laws that would remove personal freedom. If our foundational system of law was built SINGULARLY on slippery slope arguments...as your apparent counter is since you've given NO attempt to provide anything beyond the slippery slope...there would be no laws against libel/slander. There'd be no laws about public decency. There'd be no laws about fraud. There would be no laws regarding self defense. And it would go on and on, because ALL of those kind of laws could be argued against from a "slippery slope" notion that they could lead to even more restrictive and problematic laws.

This is why the slippery slope, by itself, is a worthless argument and a fallacy. If the ONLY argument that can be put forward is that something else MIGHT happen that would be bad, then you have no actual argument AGAINST the thing in question. You're basically acknowleding that the thing in question has no fault of it's own (since you would be refusing to actually highlight any), and that it's only fault is that it MIGHT at some point in an indeterminate future lead to an indeterminate other law that may have problems relating to it.

Now, I've answered your non-sensical question. How about you FINALLY actually offer an argument for why you think our marriage laws are NOT unconstitutional discrimination based on gender.
 
Ah, so you want to separate people out based on gender, but you don't want to separate them based on race? I don't want to separate them on either. That sounds like... Hmmm. Well, I'll just call it flawed logic.




Nope. Got it wrong, I haven't said that. And don't try to draw me into your SSM debate, I'm talking about Constitutional issues, not that little stuff.



Again, flawed logic on your part.
Nope. rogue hit it dead on.

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Originally Posted by Anthony60
And to be clear, my point is that the federal government does not have the power to define marriage, that is something for the States to decide.

They sure tried when the GOP sponsored bill called DOMA was pushed and passed a couple decades ago.

Q: Did you vote for the party that has in its Platform a call for a Constitutional Amendment to ban same sex marriage nationwide - thus completely removing the option for "the States to decide?"
 
It's not incumbant upon me to create your argument for you.



When you have repeatedly failed to actually engage in any kind of conversation or offe rany rational thought against what I've been saying, it's rather laughable that you want to get uppity over me not answering a non-sensical question that you posed.



No, a systme of law bulit on personal freedom is not singularly built upon a "slippery slope" argument. If it was, we would have no laws on the books because it'd potentially lead to more laws that would remove personal freedom. If our foundational system of law was built SINGULARLY on slippery slope arguments...as your apparent counter is since you've given NO attempt to provide anything beyond the slippery slope...there would be no laws against libel/slander. There'd be no laws about public decency. There'd be no laws about fraud. There would be no laws regarding self defense. And it would go on and on, because ALL of those kind of laws could be argued against from a "slippery slope" notion that they could lead to even more restrictive and problematic laws.

This is why the slippery slope, by itself, is a worthless argument and a fallacy. If the ONLY argument that can be put forward is that something else MIGHT happen that would be bad, then you have no actual argument AGAINST the thing in question. You're basically acknowleding that the thing in question has no fault of it's own (since you would be refusing to actually highlight any), and that it's only fault is that it MIGHT at some point in an indeterminate future lead to an indeterminate other law that may have problems relating to it.

Now, I've answered your non-sensical question. How about you FINALLY actually offer an argument for why you think our marriage laws are NOT unconstitutional discrimination based on gender.

There are no laws that limit anyone's personal freedom? Because that's what you seem to be asserting. And it's not uppity but very relevant.
No there aren't any such Laws?
Yes there are such Laws? Why do they exist?
 
There are no laws that limit anyone's personal freedom? Because that's what you seem to be asserting. And it's not uppity but very relevant.
No there aren't any such Laws?
Yes there are such Laws? Why do they exist?

Our Constitution states that we, as individuals, are owed due process and equal protection for any law, state or federal, that is passed to limit our individual freedoms. Do you know what due process and equal protection are?
 
I've known what your argument has been but if no one has been arguing against SSM bans using your gender argument, why do you think that is?
And you claim that I haven't given a reason why your argument is wrong while at the same time dismissing its' resulting slippery slope byproduct kind of ties my hands a bit, don't you think?
To that you'd say "The slippery slope is not a legal argument" and to that I'd say "When you think about it, the slippery slope kind of argument is really the foundation of a system of Law that's built on personal freedom."

His argument isnt new. I've used similar in the past: it's gender discrimination, preventing someone of a certain gender from entering into a (marriage) contract.

Is that not similar to his argument? And others have as well, I didnt invent my argument.
 
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I don't think they wanted anything like that in there.

I agree. I think those that passed the 14th amendment did so without trying to get substantially engaged in terms of what "equal" would actually mean, thus why they did not define it.

The Constitution does not establish the court system, just the Supreme Court.

The Constitution established the Supreme Court, as you say. The lower courts are simply extensions of that, and are utlimately superceded by the SCOTUS.

Well, that's a pretty basic word, well defined

Actually, it's by no means a "pretty basic word".

If I give you a $1 bill and another person a $100 bill, did I treat you equally? Depends on the context one wishes to view it. In terms of MONETARY VALUE, I absolutely didn't treat you equally. However, in terms of QUANTITY of items, I did treat you equally as you were both given ONE bill. Additionally, in terms of actions you could also say I treated you equally, as I both gave you one thing.

Was it equal? Was it not equal? For such a "basic" word, the reality of the situation is that it's far from basic. The inherent problem with the notion of "equal protection of the law" is that determining whether or not a particular thing is "equal" requires the individual making the determination to make a judgement call on the method of how they're determining said equality.

"Equal" is not an inheretly objective term when talking about these type of things. There is not some scientific test where you can feed information in and "ding" it will tell you in an objective and factual way whether the two different things are universally "equal". There is a subjectiveness to the determination based on how one is viewing it.

Like I said, we know what equal means. What are you for, a 75% reading of the Constitution?

Actually, we don't know exactly what equal means in every context, as I've stated above. I'm for a 100% reading of the Constitution, but not a 100% literalistic one.

This is why I don't believe Freedom of Speech applies only to thoughts expressed via sound, but rather also covers thoght expressed via words on an electronic medium like a message board. The constitution, using a 100% literalistic reading, does not actually suggest the government can't restrict your ability to express your thoughts on the internet, becuase the internet is not "speech". Another example would be the right to "keep and bear arms", the 2nd amendment. A 100% literalistic reading of the 2nd amendment would suggest the government can't infringe on one's ability to keep and bear arms, but says nothing of armaments or use. A 100% literalistic reading and interpritation of the constitution would suggest that the government could significantly restrict a citizens right to purhcase or keep ammunition, or even their ability to USE the arms that they are allowed to keep and bear.

A 100% literalistic reading of the constitution is an asinine one that renders what is an extremely enlightened work rather worthless as a foundational document of a nation.

Well, no, it's not. One has a racial component, and was does not.

That does ont matter. The 14th amendment does not preclude that citizens will have equal portection under the law in matters of race; it simply states they'll have equal protection of the law. Full stop. For someone who was previously arguing from the basis of a purely literalistic interpritation of the constitution it's funny that you now point to something that is in no way present within the constitution.

You are comparing one thing that includes all people, and another that separates them by race. Doesn't work.

Actually, I'm comparing one thing that includes all people, but seperates them by gender, with one that includes all peope, but seperates them by race. That does work. You jsut don't want to address that so you keep misrepresenting what I'm stating.

Well, now you are separating people based on sex.

Actually, I'm not "now" doing it. That's been what this discussion has been about, in terms of my post, for some time now.

And to be clear, my point is that the federal government does not have the power to define marriage, that is something for the States to decide. Whatever they decide, that's cool.

I agree, the federal government does not have the power to define marriage, that's something that the states should decide. HOWEVER, the Constitution applies to the states as well, and thus the laws that the states decide must have equal protection of the law bestowed upon all of it's citizens.

As long as the laws they decide on are constitutional, that's cool. If the laws they decide on are NOT constitution, that's not cool. Just as a state can't pass a law that violates the 2nd, nor too can it pass a law that violates the 14th.
 
And to be clear, my point is that the federal government does not have the power to define marriage, that is something for the States to decide. Whatever they decide, that's cool.

As I said in my very first post...

I personally feel marriage laws in this country area violation of the 14th via unconstitutional gender discrimination.

Removing that notion from the equation.....my general preference would be that individual states create their own marriage rules for how they marry people IN THEIR STATE. However, due to the "Full Faith and Credit Clause", a state MUST respect the contractual agreement that two citizens enter into in another state. As such, while [State A] should be able to choose not to offer same sex marriages, if a couple gets married in [State B] that DOES choose to recognize such things, then [State A] must still recognize them as married. States do not have the ability to ignore "public acts, records, and judicial proceedings" of other states.

I don't think there should be some sort of federal mandate stating you MUST perform same sex marriages in your state or that the definition of marriage MUST be any two people. Just like I don't support a federal mandate stating you CAN'T perform same sex marriages in your state, or that the definition of marriage MUST be one man and one woman. I don't believe that's a matter for the federal legislature to determine.

Either way...regardless of whether or not it's constitutional discrimination on the basis of Gender...I am firmly against using the constitution to specifically limit the rights of CITIZENS as opposed to limiting the scope of the Government, as I feel that is antithetical to the purpose of the constitution.
 
i didn't care to read their epic long legalise that dehumanizes the orientation aspect that is central to both the opposition and movement the past 20 years

I could tell from your own replies the gist of what they were saying so i replied to you instead

god forbid i make known to u i agree with something, or that others might see it

Sexual orientation is not yet recognized at the federal level as a protected class. Some gay people would like to get married now. Gender discrimination is already established law. So I'm taking the 'humane' and 'human' approach.

It's called winning a battle, one of many, in the war.
 
If it was truly that important, than why would the restrictions in place via laws be so absolutely narrowly defined. This is kind of like saying one's health is important and thus you won't drink soda; but you will eat fast food, smoke cigerettes, never exercise, and chug massive amounts of alcohol. While you could make an argument that health SHOULD be important, there's clear evidence that the person doesn't actually TREAT it like it's important and thus...to them...it is not important.

Similarly, when the government allows for all sorts of marriages that would NOT reduce the cost of custody hearings, child support questions, adoptions, inheritance, foster care, etc then the question becomes are those things truly an IMPORTANT State interest? Because they clearly are not treating it as such.



Actually scienitific evidence shows your absolutely wrong here. Additionally, this goes back to the problem with trying to claim this is an "important" state interest. It's important to protect children from abusive parents; I'd argue FAR more important, considering there's actual verifiable evidence to show that an abused child is more likely to be an abuser themselves. And yet, the state has seemingly no interest in disallowing those who came from an abusive family from getting married and having kids despite the fact they're more likely to abuse their child.

Know who else can be legally married? Convicted pedophiles. For such a supposedly "important" state interest, it seems the state has no real "interest" in protecting children from such couples.

You're not actually showing any "important" state interests; not in any way that actually shows the state could legitimately claim it to be important given the fact that they routinely allow for a multitude of marriages that don't actually support that interest and in some ways conflict with it. This clearly then shows that the discrimination on the basis of gender isn't substantially related to a state interest, but rather substantially related to some other desire for discrimination.

Wow, that stuff is out there. It's a book. Please let me know when you have scientific evidence that legalizing gay marriage wont provide more protections for the children in those families.

Just wow. It's painful even trying to agree with you.

You know what? Nevermind.
 
There are no laws that limit anyone's personal freedom?

No, there are TONS of laws that limit peoples personal freedom. That's the entire point.

If the "slippery slope" argument....BY ITSELF, as you've presented it....was a legitimate argument against it, then we would not have any of those laws because we'd be able to say "But a law that limits someone's personal freedom could lead to BAD THING! so we can't have it".

Our current legal system is a perfect example of why the slippery slope argument, exlcusionary from anything else, is a poor one. We would have anarchy, rather the rule of law, if the slippery slope alone was a legitimate argument against something.

If a law is a bad law then there will be plenty of arguments against THAT ACTUAL LAW, not against what might happen at some point of time with an entirely different law. If there are no such arguments then all that exists is the slippery slope fallacy, and that is not a legitimate reason against doing something, thus why we have various laws that do put restrictions on individual freedoms.

Stating that something is bad because of [X], [Y], and [Z] as well as because it could lead to [A] is not simply arguing the slippery slope, but is putting forth numerous arguments while acknowledging the potential for the slippery slope. In such a case, the slippery slope is simply a supporting argument, not the primary one. In such a case, the slippery slope doesn't disqualify the entire stance, because there are multiple other arguments that are present OTHER than the slippery slope.

Stating that something is bad because it could lead to [A] is singularly arguing the slipper slope, putting forth no other actual arguments and thus using the slippery slope as the primary argument rather than a supporting one. In such a case, the slippery slope disqualifies the entire stance, becuase the only support that said stance has IS the slippery slope.
 
Please let me know when you have scientific evidence that legalizing gay marriage wont provide more protections for the children in those families.

I never stated it wouldn't provide more protection. I actually suggested that there's evidence suggesting that gay couples offer MORE protections for children then many of the types of couples/individuals that the law currently allows to get married.

That was kind of my point...

You can't say that discriminating against gender in marriage is "substantially related" to an "important state interest", when there are numerous forms of coupling that is legally allowed to occur under the law that poses a far greater threat to the well being of a child than same-sex marriage.

Perhaps I'm misunderstanding you, but you seemed as if you were arguing that there IS an important state interesting in discriminating against people on the basis of gender. And that one of those "important state interests" was to keep kids from being raised by "gays" because that somehow is a bad thing for them. However in this post you seem to be saying the opposite, which has me rather confused.
 
They sure tried when the GOP sponsored bill called DOMA was pushed and passed a couple decades ago.

And who signed it into law?

Q: Did you vote for the party that has in its Platform a call for a Constitutional Amendment to ban same sex marriage nationwide - thus completely removing the option for "the States to decide?"
So, you are against them doing it the right way, the Constitutional way? I guess you would also be against an amendment from the other side changing marriage to include same sex.
 
Those that want the feds to get involved in the bedroom invoke the 14th amendment, even though it is common knowledge that it was written to solidify rights for former slaves, and had nothing to do with SSM.

They try to apply it to fit what they want, yet ignore the unambiguous fact that you stated, that marriage is applied equally to all. They ignore that they seek to change the definition of marriage, since there is no way to apply the 14th to that at all.

So their strategy is to ignore those facts, skip over them, and act as if they just don't exist.

Are the feds involved in the bedrooms of straight couples? If they have sex, ever? How many times? Anal? Oral? Then why do you assume that SSM is about that?

Is your marriage defined by the kind and amount of sex that you have? Hell, most married couples have less and less sex as time goes on, lol.

This has nothing to do with what goes on in the bedroom...many straight couples do ALL the same things. Are their marriages scrutinized? Limited? No.

It's about gender and equal protection under the law.

*crickets*
 
Now that I think of it, the same reasons for maintaining a SSM ban are the same as would be for incest/polygamy, i.e. it's disgusting or think of the kids sort of stuff.

Some of the arguments that people use to push for legalization of SSM can apply in a similar or equal fashion to incest/polygamy. However, in my personal opinion, most of those are some of the weakest and poorest arguments for legalization of SSM. They are also typically NOT the actual LEGAL arguments for allowing same sex marriage.

Things like "People should be able to marry the ones they love!" or "It doesn't hurt your marriage!" or "The government shouldn't discriminat!" are to me worthless arguments on this matter; typically born simply out of emotion rather than any kind of logic or legal basis.

HOWEVER, when it comes to the LEGAL basis...even going off the notion of orientation...there are MANY differences between the arguments allowing SSM and the arguments allowing for polygamy and incest.

For example, sexual orientation has an actual precedence as a legally protected classification under the Equal Protection Claus, being afforded a "second-order rational basis test". "Polygamist" has no such legal precedence as being viewed under that stricter version of the lowest teir. As such, polygamy would have a higher bar to jump than that of gay marriage.

Another issue between the polygamy angle and gay marriage is how it's rationally related to a particular state interest. One of the state interest sometimes pushed is the notion that the state wants to promote a stable family environment for children. There's actually more scientific evidence out there of polygamist marriages resulting in a less stable atmosphere for chlidren than gay couples.

Finally, another issue is regarding other portions of legitimate state interest. The state has a legitimate interest in regards to the potential impacts and pitfalls that allowing certain benefits will necessitate. Changes to the marriage laws to allow homosexual marriage would have very little true impact on various laws connected to marriage at a federal or state level. The reason for this is that these laws, in general, don't actually take gender into account at all. The assumption is that it's a man and woman, but ultimately there are few instances where there's some kind of specific preference to the "husband" or "wife", as opposed to the same preference being granted both "spouses". Changing it to allow for two people of the same sex is a very minor alteration to the law logistically speaking. This is not the case with a polygamist marriage, where the variable in play is the NUMBER of spouses. Many laws regarding marriage are very much tied to a two person situation and changing that would be a substantial effort logistically speaking. For example, current law essentially assumes significant legal power goes to your spouse...such a thing would not be doable if you have two spouses as it'd need to be defined which was power and which doesn't. This becomes even more problematic if you are talking of Polygamy and polyamory as one in the same, as most people do, as you have a situtaion of a man being married to one woman and that woman married to another man, but those two men not tied together in any fashion. Can both men claim that woman as a spouse for tax purposes. Can Man A claim the Man B as a dependent if Man B doesn't work and is supported by their mutral wife utilizing Man A's money? There are numerous significant hurdles to altering the legal code in the country to allow for polygamous/polyamorous marriages that simply don't exist with regards to homosexual marriage. So the state interest issue is different for both in that regard.

That's just a few issues with it. The reality is that while some of the non-legal, emotinoal/platitude based arguments for gay marriage may be applicable to something like polygamy, the actual LEGAL arguments are generally are not direct analogs.
 
No, there are TONS of laws that limit peoples personal freedom. That's the entire point.

If the "slippery slope" argument....BY ITSELF, as you've presented it....was a legitimate argument against it, then we would not have any of those laws because we'd be able to say "But a law that limits someone's personal freedom could lead to BAD THING! so we can't have it".

Our current legal system is a perfect example of why the slippery slope argument, exlcusionary from anything else, is a poor one. We would have anarchy, rather the rule of law, if the slippery slope alone was a legitimate argument against something.

If a law is a bad law then there will be plenty of arguments against THAT ACTUAL LAW, not against what might happen at some point of time with an entirely different law. If there are no such arguments then all that exists is the slippery slope fallacy, and that is not a legitimate reason against doing something, thus why we have various laws that do put restrictions on individual freedoms.

Stating that something is bad because of [X], [Y], and [Z] as well as because it could lead to [A] is not simply arguing the slippery slope, but is putting forth numerous arguments while acknowledging the potential for the slippery slope. In such a case, the slippery slope is simply a supporting argument, not the primary one. In such a case, the slippery slope doesn't disqualify the entire stance, because there are multiple other arguments that are present OTHER than the slippery slope.

Stating that something is bad because it could lead to [A] is singularly arguing the slipper slope, putting forth no other actual arguments and thus using the slippery slope as the primary argument rather than a supporting one. In such a case, the slippery slope disqualifies the entire stance, becuase the only support that said stance has IS the slippery slope.


Stay with me on this.
I'm going somewhere with it.
Let's say your argument was presented to the USSC and a majority has ruled in your favor.
How was the ruling worded, were there any resulting Laws written by Congress (that's the US Congress because the State legislatures would be irrelevant), and how was the Law(s) written.
 
*crickets*

Your post isn't worthy of a response, I couldn't care less about who has what kind of sex, it has absolutely nothing to do with what I am arguing about with the Constitution.

You had no real response for me, so I have none for you. You got nuthin', that's why you get "crickets". Nothing to be proud of.
 
And who signed it into law?

Whether Clinton signed it or not, it would have been law. There was a veto-proof majority, and they were ready to overide it.

It doesn't change the fact it was the GOP who pushed it through, and did in fact do what you said the Gov't had no power to define. In addition, the GOP fought it tooth and nail all along the way in the near 20 years after it became law, the last culminating in Windsor, where the GOP spent millions of dollars defending it before SCOTUS.


So, you are against them doing it the right way, the Constitutional way? I guess you would also be against an amendment from the other side changing marriage to include same sex.

Many would say literally enshrining discrimination into the Constitution, and removing "States' rights" (which the GOP claims as its rallying cry, but only out one side of its mouth) and enshrining *that* into the Constitution -- goes against everything American stands for.

It tells us the GOP doesn't give a **** about States' Rights. I hope they keep it in their next platform. Hypocrites.
 
Stay with me on this.
I'm going somewhere with it.
Let's say your argument was presented to the USSC and a majority has ruled in your favor.
How was the ruling worded, were there any resulting Laws written by Congress (that's the US Congress because the State legislatures would be irrelevant), and how was the Law(s) written.

Well, considering you've repeatedly refused to actually offer any kind of response to any of my posts other than frivilous fallacies or discussions about totally seperate arguments, I in no means plan to "go somewhere" with you to the extent you're asking. Considering the length that USSC rulings are, I by no means am going to take the effort to go in depth regarding what it would look like if it as ruled to be gender discrimination. But for the sake of POSSIBLY finally getting something legitimate out of you, I'll go short hand.

I would suggest the ruling would be worded in such a way to suggest that current state laws regarding marriage, written and/or enforced in a fashion that limits it marriages to 1 man and 1 woman, are unconstitutional based on gender discrimination that is not substantially related to any important state interest, and thus said restrictions would be stricten.

Contrary to your claim, this would not render state legislatures irrelevant. Rather, it would simply require the state legislators to adhere to the constitution. I imagine it would be dealt with in one of two ways. Either State laws for marriage thus would have to be rewritten without a restriction on gender as it relates to the marriage contract. OR, it could be that the laws themselves would not be stricten but simply the requirement of it being 1 man/1 woman, and thus the laws would remain on the books but would not be barred by any standard of gender.

Thus, I would either see those laws being written in such a way that they would be identical to the current marriage laws, with the sole difference being that it would be defined as between any two individuals as opposed to being between one man and one woman. OR the current laws staying in place, but simply not being limited in any fashion by gender.
 
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Your post isn't worthy of a response, I couldn't care less about who has what kind of sex, it has absolutely nothing to do with what I am arguing about with the Constitution.

You had no real response for me, so I have none for you. You got nuthin', that's why you get "crickets". Nothing to be proud of.

Of course it addressed your post. You claimed that for the govt to get involved in SSM it implied 'what goes on in peoples' bedrooms" was their business. Er, does that sound Constitutional to you? Not to me, it sounded glib and obfuscatory. But since that was your claim (as you implied it), that's how I responded to it.

I realize that it's now hard to justify your comment. No problem. It's here for all to see.
 
Ah, so you want to separate people out based on gender, but you don't want to separate them based on race? I don't want to separate them on either. That sounds like... Hmmm. Well, I'll just call it flawed logic.
Defining marriage as between a man and a woman separates people out based on gender.
 
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