- Joined
- May 22, 2012
- Messages
- 104,338
- Reaction score
- 67,416
- Location
- Uhland, Texas
- Gender
- Male
- Political Leaning
- Libertarian
Look at historical context for *why* it excluded gender. The same congress that voted in the 13th (abolishing slavery) did so with the agreement it would not lead to votes for women. The 14th says all *citizens* and does not mention race and it can be argued section 2 deals with voting specifically and refers to "male" only because women could not as of yet vote. The 14th would never have passed if it included votes for women, sadly
Further, section 5 seems to foresee challenges to equal protection for classes not even thought of at the time by establishing authority to enforce the amendment.
I see nothing in the 14th that designates race as the only class to be granted equal protection, and that's certainly not becoming of a "free country" to withhold equal protection from people for ANY reason
I am looking at historical context it is you that "envision" future and different interpretations. As you noted, section 5 allows congress, not the SCOTUS or the states, can pass additional laws, based on the 14th amendment.