Originally Posted by JoeTrumps
when exactly was the last time it "changed" and what was the reason for that change? because I'm pretty sure the definition we use(or used up until 1992 or 93) is the same one they used before jesus was around.
No-fault divorce - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
Originally Posted by matchlight
Justice Thomas' opinions consistently contain precise, detailed constitutional analyses.
Originally Posted by jaeger19
the vast majority of folks that need healthcare are on Medicare.. both rich and poor..