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You can only call it affirmative action if you can prove banks were required to provide loans to unqualified borrowers. So far, no on e on this thread has been able to show any legislation or regulation that does that. The CRA did require loans to unqualified borrowers, so it was an ant-discriminatory law, not a form of affirmative action.
I was not able to get the link to post, so I am forced to excerpt.
New Study Finds CRA 'Clearly' Did Lead To Risky Lending
By Paul Sperry
Posted 12/20/2012 06:56 PM ET
Democrats and the media insist the Community Reinvestment Act, the anti-redlining law beefed up by President Clinton, had nothing to do with the subprime mortgage crisis and recession.
But a new study by the respected National Bureau of Economic Research finds, "Yes, it did. We find that adherence to that act led to riskier lending by banks."
Added NBER: "There is a clear pattern of increased defaults for loans made by these banks in quarters around the (CRA) exam. Moreover, the effects are larger for loans made within CRA tracts," or predominantly low-income and minority areas.
To satisfy CRA examiners, "flexible" lending by large banks rose an average 5% and those loans defaulted about 15% more often, the 43-page study found.
The strongest link between CRA lending and defaults took place in the runup to the crisis — 2004 to 2006 — when banks rapidly sold CRA mortgages for securitization by Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac and Wall Street.
Read More At IBD: New Study Blames Community Reinvestment Act For Mortgage Defaults - Investors.com
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