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As stated before, government doesn't have to "force" religion for there to be a violation. I've cited case law to back this argument up. Because you don't agree with it, doesn't mean that it doesn't exist.
Yes it does in order for it to be a rightful violation in which another branch of government can legitimately then intercede, because in order to mix church and state you have to have action by the State. There has to be a force applied. Show me the force. If there is no force there can be no mixing as the government isn't DOING ANYTHING. Government operates through force, it's actions are various forms of force. To mix Church and State, there must be action, which means that the government must try to exert some amount of force.
You cannot legitimately ban individuals from certain practices based on some absurd notion that it mixes church and state if there is no state action. There has to be a real and measurable quantity, measure it, come back and tell me the value. If you cannot, then you cannot legitimately claim improper government force (since that inherently requires GOVERNMENT FORCE).
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