- Joined
- Mar 7, 2011
- Messages
- 44,814
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- Location
- A very blue state
- Gender
- Male
- Political Leaning
- Independent
Prior to 1965 segregation was the #1 political issue in the south and that's why they were democrats. After 1965 when segregation was abolished and civil rights became law, race issues being the top political priority came to an end. Over the following 8 or 10 years, it became clear to even the most hard core segregationists that the days of segregation were over and never coming back.
With the race issue out of the way politically, the people of the south made issues like religion, abortion, family values, etc, the basis for their political support, and that's why the people of the south switched to the republican party. Anyone who claims that the south votes republican today for the same reason they voted democrat 50+ years ago is either a partisan liar, or simply a gullible fool who bought into liberal propaganda.
"Family values" and the Religious Right both came up in the 80s with Jerry Falwell. Abortion wasn't an issue until 1973.
Why then, did the South flip to Republican almost 10 years before any of those things became issues?
When Lyndon Johnson signed the Civil Rights Act, he said that he just lost the South. Why would he say that if not for reasons of race? Are you saying that you know more about Southern politics in 1965 than Lyndon Johnson did? I find that hard to believe. He was, before becoming Vice-President, THE political force in the Senate, and he was from the South.
So assuming that he knew more about Southern politics of the time than you do (which is probably a safe assumption), why would he declare that he lost the South after signing a law that advanced the civil rights of blacks?