Originally Posted by Goldenboy219

pimped my hillbilly a$$??? Another Merriman opinion. The 16th amendment is what granted the federal government to tax the income as we do today.

The civil war taxes were in the form of (denied by RNYC) appropriation and enumeration (i stated it and it was deemed incorrect).



Than why reply that section 1 article 8 has any uniformity in regards to the income tax??? It doesnt, unless you were talking about enumeration and appropriation???



Does every response have to be part conception??? I was just bustin your balls a little bit about this particular subject.

What part of my post would give you the reason to believe im making things up???

Ill tell you what. You can talk all the $hit you want. You can ride everyones jock anytime they have even a minor disagreement with me. Than after words, talk your smack.

I will just call things how i see them, and do my best to be unbiased towards the subject matter as much as possible. Ill also bust your balls every time you express your intellect.

Sound ok to you???



If i was "trying to be as cool as i wanted", i most definitely wouldnt be here trying to achieve that goal. BTW, the gloves are not until late April, so im a full time student until then.

Back to the point at hand Jeff.

If you didnt know the answer, why post???

Answer: no, its the 16th amendment. As shown by RNYC, all other income based taxes were based off of appropriation and enumeration...