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I'd say the fact that the plan is based on a Republican plan produced by the Heritage Foundation and enacted by Mitt Romney counts as about a ton of *attempted* bipartisanship. Likewise, the jettisoning of the public option in a fruitless attempt to peel off even one or two Republicans. Unfortunately, like the Tango, it takes two to bipartisan.
First...you're adapting a plan SIMILAR, but not exactly like, a plan that was put forward as a bipartisan version of a plan decades earlier.
Second...said plan was produced only after Obama could not actually get the plan he want passed through his own PARTY and there is no more legitimate argument to be made that the changes to his original comments on health care came about in an effort to reach out to Republicans any more than there is that he did it to reach out to his own party members that wouldn't go along with his own plan.
Third....in regards to the public option, see above. There is no more legitimate an argument that can be made that the action was taken in hopes of securing one or two Republican votes (So we're going off the definition that one or two votes makes "bipartisanship"?) then it was in hopes of getting his own party to give enough votes to get it passed.
So if that's bipartisanship, one could argue there's as much evidence that your definition of bipartisanship is taking action to accomodate moderate and right leaning members of your own party as it is to suggest bipartisanship is taking action to accommodate the other party.
I'm still eager to see the original posters definition of bipartisanship, not out of some desire to show that Obama isn't bipartisan but more to see how consistent his view regarding ideological location and bipartisanship is with other presidents of the past as well to determine if it's a legitimate statement or one made due to pure partisanship.