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Actually, it doesn't, but it is a better argument than saying that just because the U.S. "only" has a "little bit more" guns per household/person/chicken, that then any differences in "crime" are unatribuatable to the rate of gun possession.
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I think it's a fine example of how guns and crime are not correlated. That's all I attempted to prove. If they were correlated, and people could fairly compare us to the UK (as many people do) then we should find that countries with just as many guns as we have have just as much crime. They don't. It is simply disproving a silly claim.