Debate Politics Forums - View Single Post

drb14 · 12-06-07, 02:07 PM

I quite honestly didn't get the whole way through.

However, assuming the numbers in ex. 1 were correct, and that graph is an accurate representation of those numbers, it can fairly be argued that amount of guns per capita increases, the rate of firearm related homicide increases at a faster rate than the rate of increase of the per capita firearms.

From a base possession level of 0.26 and a correlating homicide rate of .44, an increase of .03 firearms possessed per capita (from .26 to .29) yields an increase in homicides of .32. However when the per capita firearm possession increases by .10 (from .29 to .39), the increase in homicide increases 2.96 (unless my math is fuzzy).

This therefore, demonstrates, conclusively and irrefutably, that as gun possession increases within a population, the gun related homicide rate increases exponentially (or is it logarithmically? Or geometrically? I can never keep'em str8).

Actually, it doesn't, but it is a better argument than saying that just because the U.S. "only" has a "little bit more" guns per household/person/chicken, that then any differences in "crime" are unatribuatable to the rate of gun possession.

Also, it's not really honest to equate the gun related homicide rate with "crime" genrally. Blanket statements do little.

12-06-07, 02:07 PM	#2 (permalink)
drb14 Student Join Date: Jul 2007 Last Online: 10-11-08 07:21 AM Posts: 171 Thanks: 47 Thanked 21 Times in 17 Posts Lean: Independent Gender: Current Mood:	Re: Do Fewer Guns Mean Less Crime? I quite honestly didn't get the whole way through. However, assuming the numbers in ex. 1 were correct, and that graph is an accurate representation of those numbers, it can fairly be argued that amount of guns per capita increases, the rate of firearm related homicide increases at a faster rate than the rate of increase of the per capita firearms. From a base possession level of 0.26 and a correlating homicide rate of .44, an increase of .03 firearms possessed per capita (from .26 to .29) yields an increase in homicides of .32. However when the per capita firearm possession increases by .10 (from .29 to .39), the increase in homicide increases 2.96 (unless my math is fuzzy). This therefore, demonstrates, conclusively and irrefutably, that as gun possession increases within a population, the gun related homicide rate increases exponentially (or is it logarithmically? Or geometrically? I can never keep'em str8). Actually, it doesn't, but it is a better argument than saying that just because the U.S. "only" has a "little bit more" guns per household/person/chicken, that then any differences in "crime" are unatribuatable to the rate of gun possession. Also, it's not really honest to equate the gun related homicide rate with "crime" genrally. Blanket statements do little.